CDC Course Homework (Old)

CDC Course Homework

Below is the list of reading material and test for your course. Click the name of your course to begin your reading and exam. Upon completion and passing exam, your printed certificate will be emailed directly to CDC. You will not need to print the certificate.

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2 Hour Infection Control
8 Hour Infection Control
Asthma
Bloodborne Pathogens
California Practice Act
Coronal Polish
Digital X-Ray
Epinephrine
First Aid
Pit & Fissure
Ultrasonic Scaling
Radiation Safety - This test is for certification
AHA CPR

2 Hour Infection Control

Reading Material

Bacterial spores are harder to kill than fungus.

When placing a used needle in a sharps container you should:

A disinfectant should be:

It is illegal to refuse treatment to an HIV infected patient.

Hepatitis has 5 main categories, which of the following apply?

Heat sterilizers should be spore tested:

DUWL (Dental Unit Water Lines) should be flushed:

If you need to retrieve an item in a drawer during a procedure and your gloves are contaminated, you should:

As a patient, you should always ask about the dental office sterilization protocol and examine the room for cleanliness.

When taking x-rays, the collimator is never in contact with the patients mouth so there is no need to cover or disinfect it after each patient.

The definition of “disinfection” in this course is:

Alginate impressions do not need to be sterilized because they need to be poured up right away due to possible shrinkage and the store will not carry any bacteria.

High level disinfectants kill micro-organisms, except spores with prolonged contact may kill endospores.

PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) consists of:

Which of the following cause damage to latex gloves?

8 Hour Infection Control

Reading Material

Dental unit waterlines will be flushed for how long between patients?

Semi-critical instruments:

Clean and disinfect all dental impressions immediately after removal from the patient’s mouth.

Which of the following statements is true?

Instruments should be packaged before sterilization to:

Universal precautions are strategies used to _____________ the risk of transmission of pathogens in the health-care setting.

All patients must be treated equally regardless of physical condition. A patient with a communicable disease is treated with more caution.

The letters CDC stand for:

Dental personnel are potentially exposed to:

When should face masks be changed?

Face shields may be worn:

Steam sterilization under pressure can be achieved with:

Disinfecting agents for environmental surfaces should:

Proper spore testing verification can be accomplished by:

Counter tops and unit surfaces should be cleaned using 2×2 or 4×4 soaked in disinfectant and decontaminant cleaner, wipe all counter tops using “spray, wipe, spray technique” , never allow the gauze to go back over a previously cleared area.

Handwashing technique includes the use of:

What is the water temperature that should be used when washing hands?

The guidelines for infection control standard are set by:

What is the most important means of preventing disease transmission?

Handwashing is not necessary when taking intra-oral dental radiographs because gloves are always worn.

When recapping an anesthetic needle, it is BEST to:

When using universal precautions, _____________ infection control procedures are used for all patients.

The average risk of HIV infection after a needle stick exposure to HIV-infected blood is:

Gloves must be worn when there is the potential for contacting:

What must be right after exposure?

Which of the following is not considered personal protective equipment?

The greatest risk of infection from a needle stick is from:

Asthma

Video Material
Do not give medication if:

Have the person rinse out his or her mouth with:

To care for a person having an asthma attack you should:

The medications may be repeated every _____ to _____ minutes thereafter.

To care for shock:

An asthma attack may make which difficult?

The medication may be repeated once after _____ minute(s).

The person suffering from an asthma attack should try to hold his/her breath and count to:

Which of the following are signals of an asthma attack?

Which of the following are triggers of an asthma attack?

Bloodborne Pathogens

Video Material

There is no confirmed evidence that indicates that hepatitis B vaccine can cause chronic illness.

HBV is the virus that causes AIDS.

The disease process begins when a pathogen enters a person’s body.

All emergency care workers who, as part of their job duties, give assistance in any incident involving blood or other potentially infectious materials, regardless of whether a specific exposure incident occurs, must be offered the full Hepatitis B vaccination series.

Antibodies are usually effective at fighting disease.

Antibiotics are effective medicines for treating viral infections.

Voluntary Good Samaritan acts that involve exposure to blood or other infectious materials are not covered by blood borne pathogens standard.

Personal protective equipment (PPE) includes disposable gloves, gowns, masks, and shields, protective eyewear and breathing barriers.

Biohazard signs should be posted at entrances of work areas where potential pathogens may be present.

Exposure determination is based on the availability or use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

California Practice Act

Reading Material

Which of the following are unlicensed DA duties?

Direct supervision by the dentist means:

General supervision means that the dentist orders the auxiliary to perform certain functions that they are licensed to do. The dentist does not need to be physically present in the facility at the time of the function.

The Dental Board has the authority to create new regulations relating to the practice of dentistry.

Special permits are required for the administration of general anesthesia or conscious sedation.

If a license has been expired for more than 5 years it is automatically cancelled and cannot be renewed.

An additional permit is required for an RDA to perform orthodontic functions.

All licenses must be renewed every _______ year(s) or they will expire.

Which of the following is not a permissible function of an RDA?

The Board may revoke a dental professional’s license if they are found to be abusing drugs or alcohol.

A dental material fact sheet must be provided to every new patient and to patients of record prior to the performance of restorative dental treatment.

Which of the following is considered child abuse?

The Dental Board of California requires Dental Assistants to obtain a license prior to working in a dental office.

The registered dental hygienist in California can administer local anesthetic with permit.

Which of the following are mandated reporters?

Coronal Polish

Reading Material

Disclosing agents are generally made from the same dye used in food coloring:

This type of stain is associated primarily with plaque formation and poor oral hygiene.

Dilantin is a drug that may cause gingival hyperplasia (tissue overgrowth) and is associated with:

Which types of polishing agent is used on a denture?

Which of the following is not an extrinsic stain?

This stain cannot be removed by polishing:

This is the best method to use when holding a handpiece to accomplish this grasp

If a patient has HIV, Hepatitis, and/or Herpes:

All new patients should fill out a health history:

Never use Iodine solution on a ________________ patient.

Polishing agents produce:

Pressure helps control the rate of abrasion, firmer pressure results in:

Plaque needs to be removed from the tooth surface every:

Green stain is usually associated with:

Coronal polishing is a task designated by the California Dental Practice Act to the:

As food is moved across the occlusal surfaces of the teeth:

It is best to establish a fulcrum:

Place the pad of the _________ finger on a stable tooth surface.

Orange line stain:

Tetracycline stain color may range from:

Digital X-Ray

Reading Material

Which of the following is considered extraoral film?

The dentist is responsible for having dental assistants credentialed and trained to expose and process radiographs.

The hand-held systems have a variety of settings:

When the green light on the interface is illuminated, it indicates:

Digital radiography is expected to eventually replace conventional film exposure.

The sensor sheaths are reusable.

After using the sheath please:

What is another type of indirect digital imaging?

What is the purpose of importing and exporting digital images?

Which dentist would use 3-D imaging?

Epinephrine

Video Material
Some anaphylaxis kits also contain antihistamine in pill form.

An antigen is a foreign substance that brings on an allergic reaction.

In a life-threatening emergency, it is allowable to use another person’s prescription auto-injector

With an auto-injector, it is not necessary to fill the syringe with the medication.

After assisting with administration of the auto-injector:

When interviewing the person, all the following are correct except for:

An epinephrine auto-injector may be purchased over the counter and administered to any person showing signals of a severe allergic reaction.

Which of the following is a signal of a mild reaction to a bit or sting?

Call 9-1-1 or the local emergency number if the person:

When assisting a person to self-inject the medication during an anaphylactic reaction –

First Aid

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You suspect that someone is having a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting and is having trouble breathing. What should you do?

How should you care for someone with frostbitten fingers?

In stroke recognition, F.A.S.T. means:

What is the first step in caring for a bleeding wound?

The progression that heat-related emergencies can follow from early stage (least severe) to late stage (most severe) is:

What signals should you look for to determine if a person is bleeding internally?

How should you care for a person with a possible head, neck or back injury?

What sudden illness is usually caused by a blockage of blood flow to the brain?

In general, a splint should be

A woman burned her hand in the lunchroom. You should

This sudden illness results from too much or too little sugar in the person’s blood. What is it?

What should you do for a person with heat exhaustion?

What should you do if you suspect that a conscious person has been poisoned?

When caring for a person who is having a seizure, you should

Which type of injury involves an open wound where the bone has torn through the skin?

Pit & Fissure

Video Material

Reading Material

After placement of sealants, it is important to:

Etch each tooth for a minimum of:

Sealants are recommended for:

What is the primary reason for sealant failure?

Who can legally perform Pit and Fissure Sealants on patients?

What patient safety precautions should be considered when placing sealants?

The primary benefit of a filled sealant when compared to an unfiled is:

The part of the tooth that is covered with enamel is:

If saliva does come into contact with the tooth surface:

The primary purpose of dental sealants is:

A dental sealant is only effective if:

Why are certain teeth more susceptible to caries formation?

Fulcrum helps to establish stability when supporting the:

It is important that sealant products are not stored:

The part of the portion of the crown that is visible in the mouth is:

The syringe tip and/or brush is gently moved to stir the sealant materialduring placement to:

Products are generally stored at:

Personal Protective Equipment consists of:

Once placed, sealants must be cured for a minimum of:

If the tooth is properly etched, the enamel will appear:

Ultrasonic Scaling

Reading Material

The ultrasonic scaling unit forces the breakdown of cement for removal by:

Improper use of the ultrasonic unit may result in:

The ultrasonic scaler must never be used on a patient without consulting with the patient’s physician:

The working tip of the ultrasonic unit should be kept in constant motion in order to avoid:

The DPA designates the RDA in the use of an ultrasonic scaler unit to:

When tuning the ultrasonic unit prior to beginning treatment, always:

Why is it recommended that water be used with the ultrasonic unit when:

What characteristic of the ultrasonic scaling unit causes the cement to fracture and fall off?

In what direction should the operator move the handpiece when removing cement?

The ultrasonic scaler tip is placed at ____________ degree angle to the tooth surface.

When using the ultrasonic unit to remove dental cement, what portion of the scaler tip is used?

An RDA who has successfully completed a Board Approved course in ultrasonic scaling may legally:

Subgingival calculus or cement subgingival is removed by:

What is the best place for a fulcrum when removing cement using the ultrasonic scaler?

The best way to hold the handpiece when removing cement from the coronal surface of the tooth using an ultrasonic scaler is:

Radiation Safety

Video Material

Reading Material

___________ is an invisible high energy wave that can penetrate solid objects.

Processing utilizing an automatic film processing system is a faster more effective method of film processing?

A child requires___________________ when taking x-rays?

The best film sizes to use on a child are

X-ray and light are are forms of radiation that can be directed in a specific direction.

Scattered radiation can be controlled by?

The ________ setting regulates the speed and penetrating power of the x-ray

This concept endorses the use of the lowest possible exposure to the patient and operator to x-ray exposure

Avoid exposing pregnant women in their first trimester. Avoid retaking more than 3 radiographs on any patient when doing a full FMX.

A maxillary occlusal exposure is

What is commonly used to assist in taking good dental x-rays?

The setting that regulates the quantity of x-ray produced during an exposure

Rem determines the_______________

The______________ is rectangular lead disk that is placed over the opening of the

The most sensitive cells to X-rays are those that are more specialized and reproduced more quickly are?

PID stands for

When taking dental radiographs, the area with potential to cause most cross contamination is?

Who is responsible for ordering radiographs?

Which film is considered the best for caries detection by the dentist?

What is considered an extra-oral x-ray?

Which protects the surrounding tissue from unnecessary exposure by absorbing the x-ray?

The bitewings are usually taken as part of the FMX and is also used as a separate technique when an FMX is not indicated

Within the x-ray tube there are two electrodes, the positive electrode is the________

When an excessive vertical angle is used when taking x-rays the resulting image will be

This small film is worn whenever you are in the office and measures any radiation that you might receive as an operator or when performing other office tasks.

A Collimator contains a hole that limits the size of the primary beam to no more than_______ inches in diameter at the skin of the patient.

When exposing and processing radiographs, it is essential as with any dental treatment that infection control procedures are carefully followed.

During the processing technique, the chemical solutions convert the latent x-ray film image into a visible one.

Chemical that works on the crystal to produce the image on the film.

One of the signs of over exposure to radiation is

AHA CPR

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What compression-to-ventilation ratio should be used for infant 1-rescuer CPR?

What should you do if you need to use an AED on someone who is submerged in water?

A 9-year-old child suddenly collapsed. After confirming that the scene is safe, you determine that the child is in cardiac arrest, you shout for nearby help, and you activate the emergency response system by using your mobile device. You immediately begin performing high-quality CPR. A second rescuer arrives to help. What should you do next?

A 9-year-old child suddenly collapsed. After confirming that the scene is safe, you determine that the child is in cardiac arrest, you shout for nearby help, and you activate the emergency response system by using your mobile device. You immediately begin performing high-quality CPR. The second rescuer returned with the AED. One shock was delivered, and the AED prompted you to immediately resume CPR. What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for child 2-rescuer CPR?

You witness someone suddenly collapse. The person is unresponsive, you hear agonal gasps, and there is no pulse. You call 911. What should you do next?

Defibrillation is a link in the Chain of Survival. Why is early defibrillation important to survival?

A 53-year-old woman collapses at a sporting event. She is unresponsive, so you shout for help. She is not breathing and does not have a pulse. You start CPR, and emergency responders arrive with an AED. What is the first step you should take when using the AED?

A 53-year-old woman collapses at a sporting event. She is unresponsive, so you shout for help. She is not breathing and does not have a pulse. You start CPR, and emergency responders arrive with an AED. After the AED pads are attached to the patient, the AED detects a shockable rhythm. You hear the AED prompt that a shock is advised. What should you do next?

“The team functions well when all team members know their positions, functions, and tasks during a resuscitation attempt.” Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

“Members of the team know their boundaries and ask for help before the resuscitation attempt worsens.” Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

A person with a foreign-body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive. What should you do first?

When performing high-quality CPR on an adult, what action should you ensure is being accomplished?

Which action is most likely to positively impact the survival of a person with sudden cardiac arrest?

You and another rescuer just switched roles, and you notice that your partner’s chest compression rate is inconsistent. What could you say to ensure that your partner performs high-quality CPR?

Which of the following actions represents the Recognition and Emergency Activation link in the Chain of Survival?

What special circumstance should a rescuer consider when they are using an AED?

Which person requires high-quality CPR?

What is the correct depth of chest compressions for high-quality CPR on a child?

Why is allowing complete chest recoil important when you are performing high-quality CPR?

When you are performing CPR on an unresponsive person who you know is choking, what modification should you incorporate?

An 8-month-old infant is eating and suddenly begins to cough. After a moment, the infant is unable to make any noise but is responsive. You pick up the infant and shout for help. The infant has a severe airway obstruction. What should you do next?

An 8-month-old infant is eating and suddenly begins to cough. After a moment, the infant is unable to make any noise but is responsive. You pick up the infant and shout for help. The infant becomes unresponsive. What should you do next?

A 67-year-old man is found unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse in his hospital bed. You activate the emergency response system and send someone to get the AED. You begin chest compressions, and a second rescuer prepares to give ventilations with a bag-mask device. When should you switch Compressor and Airway roles during high-quality CPR?

A 67-year-old man is found unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse in his hospital bed. You activate the emergency response system and send someone to get the AED. You begin chest compressions, and a second rescuer prepares to give ventilations with a bag-mask device. You switched roles, and you notice that the second rescuer is not allowing for complete chest recoil while giving compressions. What is your next course of action?

How can rescuers ensure that they are providing effective ventilations when using a bag-mask device?

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