CDC Course Homework Test

Below is the list of reading material and test for your course. Click the name of your course to begin your reading and exam. Upon completion and passing exam, your printed certificate will be emailed directly to CDC. You will not need to print the certificate.

Please scroll down to see the course homework

2 Hour Infection Control

Welcome to your 2 Hour Infection Control Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - 2 Hour Infection Control
  • 2 Hour Infection Control

Full Name
As a patient, you should always ask about the dental office sterilization protocol and examine the room for cleanliness.

When taking x-rays, the collimator is never in contact with the patients mouth so there is no need to cover or disinfect it after each patient.

High level disinfectants kill micro-organisms, except spores with prolonged contact may kill endospores.

If you need to retrieve an item in a drawer during a procedure and your gloves are contaminated, you should:

Hepatitis has 5 main categories, which of the following apply?

Heat sterilizers should be spore tested:

A disinfectant should be:

Which of the following cause damage to latex gloves?

The definition of “disinfection” in this course is:

When placing a used needle in a sharps container you should:

It is illegal to refuse treatment to an HIV infected patient.

DUWL (Dental Unit Water Lines) should be flushed:

Alginate impressions do not need to be sterilized because they need to be poured up right away due to possible shrinkage and the store will not carry any bacteria.

PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) consists of:

Bacterial spores are harder to kill than fungus.

8 Hour Infection Control

Welcome to your 8 Hour Infection Control Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - 8 Hour Infection Control

Full Name
Steam sterilization under pressure can be achieved with:

Universal precautions are strategies used to _____________ the risk of transmission of pathogens in the health-care setting.

What must be right after exposure?

Counter tops and unit surfaces should be cleaned using 2×2 or 4×4 soaked in disinfectant and decontaminant cleaner, wipe all counter tops using “spray, wipe, spray technique” , never allow the gauze to go back over a previously cleared area.

Disinfecting agents for environmental surfaces should:

Which of the following statements is true?

What is the water temperature that should be used when washing hands?

Handwashing technique includes the use of:

Semi-critical instruments:

Which of the following is not considered personal protective equipment? Thoroughly reviewed throughout pages

Instruments should be packaged before sterilization to:

Clean and disinfect all dental impressions immediately after removal from the patient’s mouth.

What is the most important means of preventing disease transmission?

All patients must be treated equally regardless of physical condition. A patient with a communicable disease is treated with more caution.

The letters CDC stand for:

Face shields may be worn:

The guidelines for infection control standard are set by:

When should face masks be changed?

Gloves must be worn when there is the potential for contacting:

The average risk of HIV infection after a needle stick exposure to HIV-infected blood is:

Proper spore testing verification can be accomplished by:

When using universal precautions, _____________ infection control procedures are used for all patients.

The greatest risk of infection from a needle stick is from:

Handwashing is not necessary when taking intra-oral dental radiographs because gloves are always worn.

When recapping an anesthetic needle, it is BEST to:

Dental personnel are potentially exposed to:

Dental unit waterlines will be flushed for how long between patients?

Coronal Polish

Welcome to your Coronal Polish Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - Coronal Polish

Full Name
Tetracycline stain color may range from:

It is best to establish a fulcrum:

Never use Iodine solution on a ________________ patient.

This is the best method to use when holding a handpiece to accomplish this grasp

If a patient has HIV, Hepatitis, and/or Herpes:

This stain cannot be removed by polishing:

Pressure helps control the rate of abrasion, firmer pressure results in:

Orange line stain:

This type of stain is associated primarily with plaque formation and poor oral hygiene.

Coronal polishing is a task designated by the California Dental Practice Act to the:

Polishing agents produce:

All new patients should fill out a health history:

Which of the following is not an extrinsic stain?

As food is moved across the occlusal surfaces of the teeth:

Place the pad of the _________ finger on a stable tooth surface.

Which types of polishing agent is used on a denture?

Green stain is usually associated with:

Disclosing agents are generally made from the same dye used in food coloring:

Plaque needs to be removed from the tooth surface every:

Dilantin is a drug that may cause gingival hyperplasia (tissue overgrowth) and is associated with:


Welcome to your CPR Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - CPR/Basic Life Support

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Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 67-year-old man is found unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse. You and a second rescuer begin performing high-quality CPR. When should rescuers switch positions during CPR?

You notice the person giving chest compressions is not allowing for complete chest recoil. What is your next course of action?

"The team functions smoothly when all team members know their positions, functions, and tasks during a resuscitation attempt." Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

Early defibrillation is a link in the adult Chain of Survival. Why is this important to survival?

What special circumstance should a rescuer consider when using an AED?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 53-year-old woman collapses while gardening. She is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a pulse. A neighbor, who is an emergency medical technician, rushes to her with an AED. When the AED arrives, what is the first step for using it?

After the AED pads are attached to the person, the AED detects ventricular fibrillation. What is the next step when using an AED?

What should you do if you need to use an AED on someone who has been submerged in water?

Why is defibrillation important?

Which adult victim requires high-quality CPR?

Why is allowing complete chest recoil important when performing high-quality CPR?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A middle-aged man collapses. You and a second rescuer go to the victim and find that he is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a pulse. Which action is most likely to positively impact his survival?

You and another rescuer begin CPR. After a few cycles, you notice the chest compression rate is slowing. What should you say to offer constructive feedback?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: An 8-month-old infant is eating and suddenly begins to cough. The infant is unable to make any noise shortly after. You pick up the infant and shout for help. You have determined that the infant is responsive and choking with a severe airway obstruction. How do you relieve the airway obstruction?

The infant becomes unresponsive. Which action do you perform to relieve choking in an unresponsive infant?

What ratio for compressions to breaths should be used for 1-rescuer infant CPR?

When you are performing CPR on an unresponsive person whom you know is choking, what modification should you incorporate?

How can rescuers ensure that they are providing effective breaths when using a bag-mask device?

Which characteristics of chest compressions in high-quality CPR are given to a child?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 9-year-old child has suddenly collapsed. After confirming that the scene is safe, a single rescuer determines that the child is in cardiac arrest, shouts for nearby help, and activates the emergency response system by using his mobile device. He immediately begins performing high-quality CPR. Two additional rescuers immediately arrive to assist in the resuscitation attempt. What actions should occur next to support a team-based resuscitation attempt?

Two rescuers begin high-quality CPR while the third rescuer leaves to get the AED. What action supports 2-rescuer CPR?

While performing high-quality CPR on an adult, what action should you ensure is being accomplished?

A victim with a foreign-body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive. What is your first course of action?

"Members of the team know their boundaries and ask for help before the resuscitation attempt worsens." Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

You witness someone suddenly collapse. The person is unresponsive, you hear gasping sounds, and there is no pulse. You phone the local emergency response number. What should you do next?

First Aid

Welcome to your First Aid Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

What is the first step in caring for a bleeding wound?

What signals should you look for to determine if a person is bleeding internally?

In stroke recognition, F.A.S.T. means:

What should you do for a person with heat exhaustion?

What should you do if you suspect that a conscious person has been poisoned?

A woman burned her hand in the lunchroom. You should

Which type of injury involves an open wound where the bone has torn through the skin?

This sudden illness results from too much or too little sugar in the person’s blood. What is it?

What sudden illness is usually caused by a blockage of blood flow to the brain?

How should you care for a person with a possible head, neck or back injury?

The progression that heat-related emergencies can follow from early stage (least severe) to late stage (most severe) is:

You suspect that someone is having a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting and is having trouble breathing. What should you do?

How should you care for someone with frostbitten fingers?

When caring for a person who is having a seizure, you should

In general, a splint should be

Bloodborne Pathogens

Welcome to your Bloodborne Pathogens Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Full Name
Personal protective equipment (PPE) includes disposable gloves, gowns, masks, and shields, protective eyewear and breathing barriers.

Exposure determination is based on the availability or use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

Antibodies are usually effective at fighting disease.

Biohazard signs should be posted at entrances of work areas where potential pathogens may be present.

HBV is the virus that causes AIDS.

All emergency care workers who, as part of their job duties, give assistance in any incident involving blood or other potentially infectious materials, regardless of whether a specific exposure incident occurs, must be offered the full Hepatitis B vaccination series.

The disease process begins when a pathogen enters a person’s body.

Antibiotics are effective medicines for treating viral infections.

Voluntary Good Samaritan acts that involve exposure to blood or other infectious materials are not covered by blood borne pathogens standard.

There is no confirmed evidence that indicates that hepatitis B vaccine can cause chronic illness.

Ultrasonic Scaling

Welcome to your Ultrasonic Scaling Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - Ultrasonic Scaling

Full Name
The working tip of the ultrasonic unit should be kept in constant motion in order to avoid:

The ultrasonic scaler must never be used on a patient without consulting with the patient’s physician:

The ultrasonic scaler tip is placed at ____________ degree angle to the tooth surface.

In what direction should the operator move the handpiece when removing cement?

The best way to hold the handpiece when removing cement from the coronal surface of the tooth using an ultrasonic scaler is:

When tuning the ultrasonic unit prior to beginning treatment, always:

What is the best place for a fulcrum when removing cement using the ultrasonic scaler?

When using the ultrasonic unit to remove dental cement, what portion of the scaler tip is used?

Improper use of the ultrasonic unit may result in:

What characteristic of the ultrasonic scaling unit causes the cement to fracture and fall off?

The ultrasonic scaling unit forces the breakdown of cement for removal by:

Subgingival calculus or cement subgingival is removed by:

Why is it recommended that water be used with the ultrasonic unit when:

An RDA who has successfully completed a Board Approved course in ultrasonic scaling may legally:

The DPA designates the RDA in the use of an ultrasonic scaler unit to:

Pit & Fissure

Welcome to your Pit & Fissure Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - Pit & Fissure Sealants

Full Name
Fulcrum helps to establish stability when supporting the:

Products are generally stored at:

After placement of sealants, it is important to:

Etch each tooth for a minimum of:

Who can legally perform Pit and Fissure Sealants on patients?

Once placed, sealants must be cured for a minimum of:

If saliva does come into contact with the tooth surface:

The primary benefit of a filled sealant when compared to an unfiled is:

The syringe tip and/or brush is gently moved to stir the sealant materialduring placement to:

Personal Protective Equipment consists of:

The part of the tooth that is covered with enamel is:

What is the primary reason for sealant failure?

If the tooth is properly etched, the enamel will appear:

Sealants are recommended for:

Why are certain teeth more susceptible to caries formation?

It is important that sealant products are not stored:

A dental sealant is only effective if:

The part of the portion of the crown that is visible in the mouth is:

What patient safety precautions should be considered when placing sealants?

The primary purpose of dental sealants is:


Welcome to your Epinephrine Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Full Name
An antigen is a foreign substance that brings on an allergic reaction.

In a life-threatening emergency, it is allowable to use another person’s prescription auto-injector

When interviewing the person, all the following are correct except for:

Some anaphylaxis kits also contain antihistamine in pill form.

Call 9-1-1 or the local emergency number if the person:

With an auto-injector, it is not necessary to fill the syringe with the medication.

An epinephrine auto-injector may be purchased over the counter and administered to any person showing signals of a severe allergic reaction.

Which of the following is a signal of a mild reaction to a bit or sting?

When assisting a person to self-inject the medication during an anaphylactic reaction –

After assisting with administration of the auto-injector:

Schedule II Opioid Drugs

Welcome to your Schedule II Opioid Drugs Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - Opioid Drugs
Full Name
_______ is the agency that is responsible for administering and enforcing California laws that pertain to controlled substances.

Prescriptions for Schedule II drugs may include how many refills?

_____________ and _____________ drugs are the most commonly prescribed (and most often abused) Opioids.

The unauthorized distribution of prescription drugs is referred to as:

Records of Schedule II-IV controlled substances must be maintained for at least ____ years.

The analgesic used most as first line treatment options for patients with dental pain is:

NSAIDs are used to help manage pain, and reduce inflammation after dental treatment because:

Pain is:

Interdisciplinary care for chronic orofacial pain is indicated, and opioids should only be prescribed for acute dental pain for a maximum of ______ days.

Radiation Safety

Welcome to your Radiation Safety Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - Radiation Safety

Full Name
Avoid exposing pregnant women in their first trimester. Avoid retaking more than 3 radiographs on any patient when doing a full FMX.

This concept endorses the use of the lowest possible exposure to the patient and operator to x-ray exposure

Rem determines the_______________

The______________ is rectangular lead disk that is placed over the opening of the

When exposing and processing radiographs, it is essential as with any dental treatment that infection control procedures are carefully followed.

The setting that regulates the quantity of x-ray produced during an exposure

When an excessive vertical angle is used when taking x-rays the resulting image will be

Scattered radiation can be controlled by?

___________ is an invisible high energy wave that can penetrate solid objects.

The most sensitive cells to X-rays are those that are more specialized and reproduced more quickly are?

The ________ setting regulates the speed and penetrating power of the x-ray

The best film sizes to use on a child are

Chemical that works on the crystal to produce the image on the film.

Processing utilizing an automatic film processing system is a faster more effective method of film processing?

X-ray and light are are forms of radiation that can be directed in a specific direction.

Which film is considered the best for caries detection by the dentist?

A Collimator contains a hole that limits the size of the primary beam to no more than_______ inches in diameter at the skin of the patient.

One of the signs of over exposure to radiation is

A child requires___________________ when taking x-rays?

What is considered an extra-oral x-ray?

PID stands for

During the processing technique, the chemical solutions convert the latent x-ray film image into a visible one.

Who is responsible for ordering radiographs?

The bitewings are usually taken as part of the FMX and is also used as a separate technique when an FMX is not indicated

This small film is worn whenever you are in the office and measures any radiation that you might receive as an operator or when performing other office tasks.

Which protects the surrounding tissue from unnecessary exposure by absorbing the x-ray?

A maxillary occlusal exposure is

When taking dental radiographs, the area with potential to cause most cross contamination is?

Within the x-ray tube there are two electrodes, the positive electrode is the________

What is commonly used to assist in taking good dental x-rays?


Welcome to your Asthma Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Full Name
To care for shock:

Which of the following are signals of an asthma attack?

The medications may be repeated every _____ to _____ minutes thereafter.

Which of the following are triggers of an asthma attack?

The person suffering from an asthma attack should try to hold his/her breath and count to:

To care for a person having an asthma attack you should:

Do not give medication if:

An asthma attack may make which difficult?

The medication may be repeated once after _____ minute(s).

Have the person rinse out his or her mouth with:

California Practice Act

Welcome to your California Practice Act Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - California Practice Act

Full Name
General supervision means that the dentist orders the auxiliary to perform certain functions that they are licensed to do. The dentist does not need to be physically present in the facility at the time of the function.

The Dental Board has the authority to create new regulations relating to the practice of dentistry.

An additional permit is required for an RDA to perform orthodontic functions.

Which of the following are mandated reporters?

A dental material fact sheet must be provided to every new patient and to patients of record prior to the performance of restorative dental treatment.

If a license has been expired for more than 5 years it is automatically cancelled and cannot be renewed.

Which of the following is not a permissible function of an RDA?

Which of the following is considered child abuse?

Special permits are required for the administration of general anesthesia or conscious sedation.

The registered dental hygienist in California can administer local anesthetic with permit.

The Board may revoke a dental professional’s license if they are found to be abusing drugs or alcohol.

Which of the following are unlicensed DA duties?

The Dental Board of California requires Dental Assistants to obtain a license prior to working in a dental office.

All licenses must be renewed every _______ year(s) or they will expire.

Direct supervision by the dentist means:

Digital X-Ray

Welcome to your Digital X-Ray Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Full Name
Which of the following is considered extraoral film?

Digital radiography is expected to eventually replace conventional film exposure.

When the green light on the interface is illuminated, it indicates:

What is another type of indirect digital imaging?

What is the purpose of importing and exporting digital images?

The dentist is responsible for having dental assistants credentialed and trained to expose and process radiographs.

After using the sheath please:

The hand-held systems have a variety of settings:

Which dentist would use 3-D imaging?

The sensor sheaths are reusable.