CDC Course Homework

CDC Course Homework Test

Below is the list of reading material and test for your course. Click the name of your course to begin your reading and exam. Upon completion and passing exam, your printed certificate will be emailed directly to CDC. You will not need to print the certificate.

Please scroll down to see the course homework

Dental Assisting

Coronal Polish

Radiation Safety - X-Ray (This test is for certification)

8 Hour Infection Control

AHA CPR/AED Training

California Dental Practice Act

Pit & Fissure Sealants

Continuing Education (CEU)

2 Hour Infection Control

Epinephrine

Asthma

Schedule II Opioid Drugs

Basic First Aid

Ultrasonic Scaling

OSHA Annual Bloodborne Pathogens

Digital Radiation and X-Ray Technique

California Dental Practice Act

AHA CPR/AED Training

2 Hour Infection Control

Welcome to your 2 Hour Infection Control Exam.
You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - 2 Hour Infection Control

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2 Hour Infection Control

Reading Material

Full Name

Phone

Hepatitis has 5 main categories, which of the following apply?

Hepatitis B, C, and D are spread through direct contact with infected body fluid

Hepatitis A, B, C and HBV

Hepatitis A and E are spread through contaminated food and water

A and C are correct

None

When placing a used needle in a sharps container you should:

Bend the needle, then place it in sharps container ensuring it drops into the container

Recap the needle then place in the sharps container ensuring it drops into the container

Recap the needle and throw it in a biohazard bag, then place it in the container

Carefully place it in the sharps container ensuring it drops into the container, using hemostat or plier to remove needle for the syringe and place directly into container

None

If you need to retrieve an item in a drawer during a procedure and your gloves are contaminated, you should:

Use an over glove or take the gloves off, wash your hands, retrieve the object, put on a new pair of gloves

Wash gloves with antimicrobial soap and dry thoroughly, and retrieve them

Wipe gloves with a Cavicide wipe, dry gloves, and retrieve item

Use your pinkie finger to retrieve items since your pinkies don’t typically get dirty

None

When taking x-rays, the collimator is never in contact with the patients mouth so there is no need to cover or disinfect it after each patient.

True

False

None

The definition of “disinfection” in this course is:

The same as sterilization

Destruction of most forms of microorganisms and bacteria

Destruction of bacteria

May kill all kinds of disease producing microorganisms but cannot kill bacterial spores

None

It is illegal to refuse treatment to an HIV infected patient.

True

False

None

Alginate impressions do not need to be sterilized because they need to be poured up right away due to possible shrinkage and the store will not carry any bacteria.

True

False

None

PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) consists of:

Personal hygiene

Hand washing

Mask, goggle, lab coat, gloves

Taking precautions only when necessary

None

Which of the following cause damage to latex gloves?

Oil or petroleum-based hand cream

Disinfecting chemicals

Sharp instruments

All are correct

None

High level disinfectants kill micro-organisms, except spores with prolonged contact may kill endospores.

True

False

None

Heat sterilizers should be spore tested:

When instruments are starting to rust

Daily

Weekly

When instruments are contaminated

None

A disinfectant should be:

Fast acting and effective

Odorless, effective, and contain alcohol

Odorless, effective, non-staining, non-toxic, have a wide spectrum of antibacterial activity

All are correct

None

As a patient, you should always ask about the dental office sterilization protocol and examine the room for cleanliness.

True

False

None

DUWL (Dental Unit Water Lines) should be flushed:

At the beginning of each day for at least 2 minutes

At the beginning of each day for 2 minutes and after each patient for 20 seconds

At the beginning of each day for 20 seconds and after each patient for 2 minutes

At the end of each day as a closing duty

None

Bacterial spores are harder to kill than fungus.

True

False

None

Time’s up

8 Hour Infection Control

Welcome to your 8 Hour Infection Control Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - 8 Hour Infection Control

Pause

Reading Material

Full Name

Phone

Which of the following is not considered personal protective equipment?

Gloves

Protective eyewear

Long-sleeved jacket

Short-sleeved scrub top

Mask

None

The guidelines for infection control standard are set by:

Center for disease control (CDC)

California department of health and safety (CAL-DOSH)

Dental board of California

None

Gloves must be worn when there is the potential for contacting:

Mucous membranes

Saliva

Blood

Intact skin during an extra-oral exam

A, B, and C

All of the above

None

Clean and disinfect all dental impressions immediately after removal from the patient’s mouth.

True

False

None

The greatest risk of infection from a needle stick is from:

Hepatitus B

HIV

Tuberculosis

None

Instruments should be packaged before sterilization to:

Maintain their sterility after sterilization

Eliminate blood on the instruments

Reduce rusting of the instruments

Reduce the exposure time needed for sterilization

None

What must be right after exposure?

Immediately report the incident.

Clean wounds with soap and water and wait until the end of the procedure to report the incident.

Clean wounds with a disinfectant to reduce the chance of infection.

Always squeeze the wound immediately before washing it with soap and water.

None

Handwashing is not necessary when taking intra-oral dental radiographs because gloves are always worn.

True

False

None

Steam sterilization under pressure can be achieved with:

Ultrasonic cleaner

Autoclave

Dry heat method

All of the above

None

When should face masks be changed?

End of treatment procedure

When moist

Once a day

A & B are correct

None

Proper spore testing verification can be accomplished by:

Reading the indicator tape of the sterilization pouch

Using a biological indicator

Using a heat indicator

Using a temperature control indicator

None

Dental personnel are potentially exposed to:

HIV

Hepatitis B

Hepatitis C

Other bloodborne pathogens

All of the above

None

Which of the following statements is true?

Instruments only need cleaning if they have visible contamination.

Personnel should wear heavy-duty utility gloves when cleaning contaminated instruments.

Place sterilization indicator or strip on the inside of the bag (this will verify that the items inside the bag are sterile after the sterilization cycle is complete)

B and C

All of the above

None

What is the water temperature that should be used when washing hands?

Hot

Cold

Warm

It is acceptable to use an alcohol based (Germ-X) hand cleaner under all conditions

None

When recapping an anesthetic needle, it is BEST to:

Use the one-handed scoop method or recapping device

Use two hands

Leave the syringe uncapped and on the bracket tray

None

Handwashing technique includes the use of:

Plain hand soap

Germ-X hand cleaner

Anti-microbial soap, warm water, & brush

Cidex

None

Universal precautions are strategies used to _____________ the risk of transmission of pathogens in the health-care setting.

minimize

Increase

Expand

None of the above

None

All patients must be treated equally regardless of physical condition. A patient with a communicable disease is treated with more caution.

The first statement is true. The second statement is false.

The first statement is false. The second statement is true.

Both statements are true.

Both statements are false.

None

Dental unit waterlines will be flushed for how long between patients?

20-30 seconds

2-3 minutes

5 minutes

10 minutes

None

Counter tops and unit surfaces should be cleaned using 2×2 or 4×4 soaked in disinfectant and decontaminant cleaner, wipe all counter tops using “spray, wipe, spray technique” , never allow the gauze to go back over a previously cleared area.

True

False

None

What is the most important means of preventing disease transmission?

Wearing gloves

Disinfecting surfaces

Hand hygiene

Wearing a mask

None

Semi-critical instruments:

Do not penetrate soft tissue or bone

Can be thrown away

Come in packs of 5

All of the above

None

Disinfecting agents for environmental surfaces should:

Be intermediate-level

Possess tuberculocidal activity

Be registered with the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

All of the above

None

Face shields may be worn:

An individual needs to wear prescription glasses

During all lab procedures

Only when using the model trimmer and/or lab engines

At all times

None

When using universal precautions, _____________ infection control procedures are used for all patients.

Different

Equal

Expanded

Airborne

None

The average risk of HIV infection after a needle stick exposure to HIV-infected blood is:

.4%

3.0%

30%

Greater than 50%

None

The letters CDC stand for:

Center for Disease Criteria

Centers for Disease Control

Center for Dental Chemicals

California Dental Criteria

None

Time’s up

Coronal Polish

Welcome to your Coronal Polish Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - Coronal Polish

Pause

Reading Material

Full Name

Phone

Pressure helps control the rate of abrasion, firmer pressure results in:

Higher abrasion rate and increased frictional heat

No heat at all

Speed is not a concern

None are correct

None

This stain cannot be removed by polishing:

Intrinsic

Extrinsic

Exogenous

Tabaco

None

Which types of polishing agent is used on a denture?

Tin Oxide

Garnet

Silex

Chalk

None

Orange line stain:

Is caused by over exposure to chlorhexidine

Is found primarily in males

Is caused by poor oral hygiene

Is common in some foreign countries

None

Place the pad of the _________ finger on a stable tooth surface.

Thumb

Ring finger

Middle finger

Pinky

None

It is best to establish a fulcrum:

On the opposite arch being polished

On the adjacent tooth

Always attempt to fulcrum in the same arch being polished

On a denture if possible

None

Disclosing agents are generally made from the same dye used in food coloring:

Betadine

Blue dye

Iodine

Erythrosine red dye

None

All new patients should fill out a health history:

Only by email

Using the interview format

By phone before the appointment

None are correct

None

This is the best method to use when holding a handpiece to accomplish this grasp

Palm grasp

Palm-thumb grasp

Modified pen or pen grasp

None of the above

None

As food is moved across the occlusal surfaces of the teeth:

Force particles toward the occlusal

Prevent food from entering the interproximal

A and B are correct

None are correct

None

Dilantin is a drug that may cause gingival hyperplasia (tissue overgrowth) and is associated with:

Liver disease

Heart disease

Kidney disease

Epileptic individuals

None

Green stain is usually associated with:

Men

Antibiotics

Children

Heredity

None

Polishing agents produce:

Removes only yellow stain

Smooth glossy surfaces

Removes all stains

All are correct

None

Tetracycline stain color may range from:

Light green

Yellow

Dark grey or brown

All are correct

None

Plaque needs to be removed from the tooth surface every:

5 – 10 hours

12 – 24 hours

1 – 2 days

None are correct

None

Coronal polishing is a task designated by the California Dental Practice Act to the:

Dental Assistant

Anyone

None are correct

RDA after a completed Board approved course

None

Never use Iodine solution on a ________________ patient.

Pregnant

Arthritic

Diabetic

Anemic

None

Which of the following is not an extrinsic stain?

Yellow

Black

Green

None of the above

None

This type of stain is associated primarily with plaque formation and poor oral hygiene.

Green

Yellow

Brown

B and C are correct

None

If a patient has HIV, Hepatitis, and/or Herpes:

A wipe disinfectant is fine

Sterilize everything

You cannot see them

You do not need PPE’s

None

Time’s up

AHA CPR/AED Training

Welcome to your AHA CPR/AED Training Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - CPR/Basic Life Support

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Video Material

Reading Material

Full Name

Phone

What compression-to-ventilation ratio should be used for infant 1-rescuer CPR?

5 compressions to 1 ventilation

15 compressions to 2 ventilations

20 compressions to 2 ventilations

30 compressions to 2 ventilations

None

What should you do if you need to use an AED on someone who is submerged in water?

Pull the person out of the water, but do not use the AED

Do not pull the person out of the water, and wipe their chest

Pull the person out of the water, and wipe their chest

Do not move the person, and do not use the AED

None

A 9-year-old child suddenly collapsed. After confirming that the scene is safe, you determine that the child is in cardiac arrest, you shout for nearby help, and you activate the emergency response system by using your mobile device. You immediately begin performing high-quality CPR. A second rescuer arrives to help. What should you do next?

Tell the second rescuer to call 911

Tell the second rescuer to take over compressions

Tell the second rescuer to go get the AED

Tell the second rescuer to deliver breaths

None

A 9-year-old child suddenly collapsed. After confirming that the scene is safe, you determine that the child is in cardiac arrest, you shout for nearby help, and you activate the emergency response system by using your mobile device. You immediately begin performing high-quality CPR. The second rescuer returned with the AED. One shock was delivered, and the AED prompted you to immediately resume CPR. What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for child 2-rescuer CPR?

5 compressions to 1 ventilation

15 compressions to 2 ventilations

20 compressions to 2 ventilations

30 compressions to 2 ventilations

None

You witness someone suddenly collapse. The person is unresponsive, you hear agonal gasps, and there is no pulse. You call 911. What should you do next?

Begin CPR; the gasps are not considered normal breathing

Go get the AED; the gasps are considered normal breathing

Monitor the person; the gasps are considered normal breathing

Give breaths only; the gasps are not considered normal breathing

None

Defibrillation is a link in the Chain of Survival. Why is early defibrillation important to survival?

It leads to a 100% success rate

It identifies the person’s heart rate

It prevents cardiac arrest from reoccurring

It may restore a regular heart rhythm

None

A 53-year-old woman collapses at a sporting event. She is unresponsive, so you shout for help. She is not breathing and does not have a pulse. You start CPR, and emergency responders arrive with an AED. What is the first step you should take when using the AED?

Turn on the AED and press the Shock button

Apply the pads to the patient’s bare chest

Turn on the AED and follow the prompts

Turn on the AED and shout, “Clear!”

None

A 53-year-old woman collapses at a sporting event. She is unresponsive, so you shout for help. She is not breathing and does not have a pulse. You start CPR, and emergency responders arrive with an AED. After the AED pads are attached to the patient, the AED detects a shockable rhythm. You hear the AED prompt that a shock is advised. What should you do next?

Check for a carotid pulse

Clear the patient by shouting, “Clear!”

Resume CPR

Press the Shock button

None

“The team functions well when all team members know their positions, functions, and tasks during a resuscitation attempt.” Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

Clear roles and responsibilities

Constructive intervention

Knowing your limitations

Mutual respect

None

“Members of the team know their boundaries and ask for help before the resuscitation attempt worsens.” Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

Summarizing and reevaluation

Constructive intervention

Knowledge sharing

Knowing your limitations

None

A person with a foreign-body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive. What should you do first?

Start CPR, beginning with chest compressions

Perform abdominal thrusts

Roll the person over and perform back blows

Perform blind finger sweeps

None

When performing high-quality CPR on an adult, what action should you ensure is being accomplished?

Allowing the chest to recoil to at least 1 inch

Maintaining a compression rate of 90 to 120/min

Placing hands on the upper third of the sternum

Compressing to a depth of at least 2 inches

None

Which action is most likely to positively impact the survival of a person with sudden cardiac arrest?

Performing high-quality CPR

Checking the pulse frequently

Providing rescue breaths

Ensuring scene safety

None

You and another rescuer just switched roles, and you notice that your partner’s chest compression rate is inconsistent. What could you say to ensure that your partner performs high-quality CPR?

“Remember to compress at a rate of at least 100 per minute.”

“Remember to compress at a rate of at least 120 per minute.”

“Remember to compress at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute.”

“Remember to compress at a rate of 80 to 120 per minute.”

None

Which of the following actions represents the Recognition and Emergency Activation link in the Chain of Survival?

Applying AED pads to the patient’s bare chest

Assessing the underlying causes of cardiac arrest

Providing chest compressions and breaths

Identifying the signs of cardiac arrest and calling 911

None

What special circumstance should a rescuer consider when they are using an AED?

You should not remove a transdermal medication patch from the chest before applying AED pads

You may need to remove chest hair before applying AED pads

You should not use an AED on someone with an implanted pacemaker

You may need to use the AED while a person is submerged in water

None

Which person requires high-quality CPR?

Someone who has a pulse and is not breathing normally

Someone who doesn’t have a pulse and is not breathing normally

Someone who has a pulse and is breathing normally

Someone who is choking but is able to talk to you

None

What is the correct depth of chest compressions for high-quality CPR on a child?

At least one third the depth of the chest, approximately 2 inches (5 cm)

At least one fourth the depth of the chest, approximately 11⁄2 inches (4 cm)

At least one half the depth of the chest, approximately 3 inches (8 cm)

At least two thirds the depth of the chest, approximately 4 inches (10 cm)

None

Why is allowing complete chest recoil important when you are performing high-quality CPR?

The rate of chest compressions will increase

It will reduce the risk of rib fractures

The heart will adequately refill between compressions

There will be a reduction of rescuer fatigue

None

When you are performing CPR on an unresponsive person who you know is choking, what modification should you incorporate?

You should attempt a jaw thrust instead of a head tilt‒chin lift

You do not give breaths to an unresponsive choking person

Each time you open the airway, you should look for the obstructing object

There are no modifications to CPR for an unresponsive choking person

None

An 8-month-old infant is eating and suddenly begins to cough. After a moment, the infant is unable to make any noise but is responsive. You pick up the infant and shout for help. The infant has a severe airway obstruction. What should you do next?

Begin chest compressions using the 2 thumb–encircling hands technique

Alternate giving sets of 5 back blows and 5 chest thrusts

Encourage the infant to cough, and look in the mouth for the object

Monitor the infant until emergency responders arrive

None

Perform CPR, looking in the mouth for the obstructing object before you give each breath

Alternate giving sets of 5 back blows and 5 chest thrusts and looking for the obstructing object

Attempt a blind finger sweep to remove the obstructing object

Leave the infant in a safe place and go get the AED

None

A 67-year-old man is found unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse in his hospital bed. You activate the emergency response system and send someone to get the AED. You begin chest compressions, and a second rescuer prepares to give ventilations with a bag-mask device. When should you switch Compressor and Airway roles during high-quality CPR?

When placing the AED pads

At 5-minute intervals

About every 2 minutes

Never

None

A 67-year-old man is found unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse in his hospital bed. You activate the emergency response system and send someone to get the AED. You begin chest compressions, and a second rescuer prepares to give ventilations with a bag-mask device. You switched roles, and you notice that the second rescuer is not allowing for complete chest recoil while giving compressions. What is your next course of action?

Immediately take over chest compressions

Tell them that the compressions are wrong

Stand back and await direction from the second rescuer

Remind them to allow for complete chest recoil

None

How can rescuers ensure that they are providing effective ventilations when using a bag-mask device?

By observing chest rise with each ventilation

By always having oxygen attached to the bag

By allowing air to release around the mask

By delivering ventilations quickly and forcefully

None

Time’s up

Basic First Aid

Welcome to your Basic First Aid Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Video Material
Video Material
Video Material
Video Material
Video Material
Video Material
Video Material
Video Material

Full Name

Phone

Which type of injury involves an open wound where the bone has torn through the skin?

Sprain

Dislocation

Strain

Open fracture

None

The progression that heat-related emergencies can follow from early stage (least severe) to late stage (most severe) is:

Heat cramps, heat stroke, heat exhaustion.

Heat exhaustion, heat stroke, heat cramps.

Heat cramps, heat exhaustion, heat stroke.

Heat exhaustion, heat cramps, heat stroke.

None

You suspect that someone is having a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting and is having trouble breathing. What should you do?

Give the person abdominal thrusts.

After about 15 minutes, call 9-1-1.

Call 9-1-1 immediately and care for the person until help arrives.

Give the person a cool drink.

None

When caring for a person who is having a seizure, you should

Try to hold the person still.

Remove nearby object that might cause injury.

Place a spoon or a wallet between the person’s teeth.

All of the above.

None

What should you do if you suspect that a conscious person has been poisoned?

Call the local pharmacy.

Call the Poison Control Center and follow the advice given.

Give the person large amounts of milk.

Immediately induce vomiting.

None

What sudden illness is usually caused by a blockage of blood flow to the brain?

Heart-related emergency.

Heart attack.

Diabetic emergency,

Stroke.

None

This sudden illness results from too much or too little sugar in the person’s blood. What is it?

Stroke

Diabetic emergency

Seizure

Allergic reaction.

None

In general, a splint should be

Glued to a person

Loose, so that person can still move the injured limb.

Ties with cravats over the injured area.

None of the above

None

What signals should you look for to determine if a person is bleeding internally?

The person is vomiting or coughing up blood.

There are tender, swollen bruised areas or hard bumps on the body.

Severe pain and bruising.

All of the above.

None

In stroke recognition, F.A.S.T. means:

Face, arm, speech, and time.

Feet, airway, speech and temperature.

Fever, anxiety, stress, and taste.

Flexibility, asthma, sudden tightness in the chest.

None

What should you do for a person with heat exhaustion?

Force the person to quickly drink a lot of water.

Get the person out of the heat and into a cooler place.

Put more layers of clothing on the person as protection against the heat.

All of the above.

None

What is the first step in caring for a bleeding wound?

Apply pressure at a pressure point.

Add bulky dressing to reinforce blood-soaked bandages.

Cover the wound with sterile dressing and apply direct pressure

Care for shock.

None

How should you care for a person with a possible head, neck or back injury?

Move the person into a comfortable position as soon as possible.

Move the injured are so that it rests above the person’s heart.

Minimize movement of the head, neck and back.

None of the above.

None

How should you care for someone with frostbitten fingers?

Gently soak in water not warmer than 105°F

Massage his or her hands vigorously.

Have the person shake his or her hands vigorously until feeling is restored.

Place cotton or gauze between them

None

A woman burned her hand in the lunchroom. You should

Stop the burning.

Cool the burn with large amounts of cold water.

Cover the burn loosely with a dry, sterile dressing.

All of the above.

None

Time’s up

OSHA Annual Bloodborne Pathogens

Welcome to your OSHA Annual Bloodborne Pathogens Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Video Material

Full Name

Phone

Exposure determination is based on the availability or use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

True

False

None

Voluntary Good Samaritan acts that involve exposure to blood or other infectious materials are not covered by blood borne pathogens standard.

True

False

None

Antibodies are usually effective at fighting disease.

True

False

None

There is no confirmed evidence that indicates that hepatitis B vaccine can cause chronic illness.

True

False

None

Antibiotics are effective medicines for treating viral infections.

True

False

None

Personal protective equipment (PPE) includes disposable gloves, gowns, masks, and shields, protective eyewear and breathing barriers.

True

False

None

HBV is the virus that causes AIDS.

True

False

None

All emergency care workers who, as part of their job duties, give assistance in any incident involving blood or other potentially infectious materials, regardless of whether a specific exposure incident occurs, must be offered the full Hepatitis B vaccination series.

True

False

None

The disease process begins when a pathogen enters a person’s body.

True

False

None

Biohazard signs should be posted at entrances of work areas where potential pathogens may be present.

True

False

None

Time’s up

Ultrasonic Scaling

Welcome to your Ultrasonic Scaling Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - Ultrasonic Scaling

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Reading Material

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Phone

An RDA who has successfully completed a Board Approved course in ultrasonic scaling may legally:

Remove subgingival calculus

Remove orthodontic cement from around brackets and after de-banding

Remove supragingival calculus only

Remove calculus as a prophy

None

The DPA designates the RDA in the use of an ultrasonic scaler unit to:

Remove cement from the cervical area of the tooth

Remove supragingival calculus

Remove supragingival cement around orthodontic bands and after the removal of bands

Remove supragingival and subgingival cement from the coronal portion of the tooth.

None

The best way to hold the handpiece when removing cement from the coronal surface of the tooth using an ultrasonic scaler is:

Palm/Thumb grasp

Modified pen grasp

Pencil grasp

Thumb grasp

None

The ultrasonic scaling unit forces the breakdown of cement for removal by:

Having an angled tip

Vibrations

Allowing hand pressure

Water spray

None

When tuning the ultrasonic unit prior to beginning treatment, always:

Begin at the lowest setting

Begin with the highest setting

Test of tooth surface

Have a heavy water flow

None

The working tip of the ultrasonic unit should be kept in constant motion in order to avoid:

Cement from being removed too quickly

Excess water build-up

Frictional heat occurrences

Loss of fulcrum

None

What characteristic of the ultrasonic scaling unit causes the cement to fracture and fall off?

Pressure on the tooth

Amount of water spray

Vibration

Angle of the tip

None

In what direction should the operator move the handpiece when removing cement?

Side to side

Up and down away from tissue vertical stokes

Circular motion

All are correct

None

What is the best place for a fulcrum when removing cement using the ultrasonic scaler?

On soft tissue

On hard tissue

The tip of the chin

All are correct

None

When using the ultrasonic unit to remove dental cement, what portion of the scaler tip is used?

The blunt tip end

The point

The back

The side angle

None

Subgingival calculus or cement subgingival is removed by:

Using a hand scaler

Using un-waxed floss

The dentist or hygienist only

Lighter strokes

None

The ultrasonic scaler tip is placed at ____________ degree angle to the tooth surface.

90°

50°

Parallel to the tooth

15°

None

Improper use of the ultrasonic unit may result in:

Gouging/roughening of the tooth surface

Successful removal of cement

Loss of fulcrum point

Faster removal of cement

None

Why is it recommended that water be used with the ultrasonic unit when:

Only small amounts of cement are present

On younger patients

With plastic brackets

Prevent overheating of tooth

None

The ultrasonic scaler must never be used on a patient without consulting with the patient’s physician:

They are diabetic

They have a pacemaker

They have HIV

They have hearing aids

None

Time’s up

Pit & Fissure Sealants

Welcome to your Pit & Fissure Sealants Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - Pit & Fissure Sealants

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Video Material

Reading Material

Full Name

Phone

Products are generally stored at:

Room Temperature

65 degrees or below

Frozen

None of the above

None

Once placed, sealants must be cured for a minimum of:

5 seconds

20 seconds

1 minute

2 minutes

None

What is the primary reason for sealant failure?

Improper setting times

Moisture contamination

Pits and fissures are too deep

Occlusal trauma

None

A dental sealant is only effective if:

It is placed with a small brush

It is cured for at least 2 minutes

If it is placed correctly

If a rubber dam is used

None

The part of the tooth that is covered with enamel is:

Root

Anatomic crown

Clinical crown

B and C are correct

None

The primary purpose of dental sealants is:

To prevent decay from spreading

To prevent decay in the interproximalspaces

To seal in decay so it does not spreadfurther

To prevent pit and fissures from dental caries.

None

The syringe tip and/or brush is gently moved to stir the sealant materialduring placement to:

Remove air bubbles

To allow material to flow into deep areas

To spread the material

A and C are correct

None

The primary benefit of a filled sealant when compared to an unfiled is:

Filled sealants are more opaque in color

They tent to bond to the enamel surfaces better

Filled sealants tend to be more resilient to occlusal wear

They prevent the occurrence of micro-leakage

None

Etch each tooth for a minimum of:

5 seconds

10 seconds

5 minutes

15 seconds

None

Who can legally perform Pit and Fissure Sealants on patients?

Dental assistant

Expanded functions dental assistant

Ortho assistant

Registered Dental Assistant

Only those with certification

None

If saliva does come into contact with the tooth surface:

Air dry the tooth

Re-etch for an additional minute

Dry the tooth with gauze

Re-eth for an additional 5 seconds

None

It is important that sealant products are not stored:

At room temperature

Longer then 3 months

Near Eugenol products

None are correct

None

Why are certain teeth more susceptible to caries formation?

Fluoride is less effective if pits and fissures are too deep

Saliva and pellicle pools in the area

Deep pits and fissures are difficult to keep clean

A and C are correct

All are correct

None

Personal Protective Equipment consists of:

Gloves

Mask/goggles

Toothbrush

A and B are correct

None

After placement of sealants, it is important to:

Check the bite with articulating paper

Check the bite with a finishing strip

Polish the newly sealed tooth

All are correct

None

The part of the portion of the crown that is visible in the mouth is:

Root

Anatomic crown

Clinical crown

B and C are correct

None

Sealants are recommended for:

Teeth with very deep pits and fissures

Use in prevention of caries formation

None of the above

A and B are correct

None

Fulcrum helps to establish stability when supporting the:

Elbow

Handpiece/instrument

Neck

Back

None

What patient safety precautions should be considered when placing sealants?

Have the patient wear safety eyewear

Use topical anesthetic before treatment

Keep etchant off of soft tissue

A and C are correct

None

If the tooth is properly etched, the enamel will appear:

Glossy

To have a bluish tint

Frosty white

Opaque

None

Time’s up

Epinephrine

Welcome to your Epinephrine Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Video Material

Full Name

Phone

An antigen is a foreign substance that brings on an allergic reaction.

True

False

None

Which of the following is a signal of a mild reaction to a bit or sting?

Redness of the face

Redness throughout the body

Redness on one side of the body

Redness around the entry site

None

An epinephrine auto-injector may be purchased over the counter and administered to any person showing signals of a severe allergic reaction.

True

False

None

When interviewing the person, all the following are correct except for:

Ask the person their name

Try to find out how the person was exposed.

Determine the time frame of the exposure

None of the above

None

In a life-threatening emergency, it is allowable to use another person’s prescription auto-injector

True

False

None

With an auto-injector, it is not necessary to fill the syringe with the medication.

True

False

None

Call 9-1-1 or the local emergency number if the person:

Has trouble breathing

Complains of their throat tightening

Explains that he or she is subject to severe allergic reactions

All of the above

None

Some anaphylaxis kits also contain antihistamine in pill form.

True

False

None

When assisting a person to self-inject the medication during an anaphylactic reaction –

Forcefully place the auto-injector against the skin which activates the device, usually the person’s mid outer thigh.

Hold the injector against the thigh for at least 30 seconds to expel the liquid.

Place the auto-injector at a 90-degree angle on the inner thigh.

Hold the injector against the thigh for at least 5 seconds to expel the liquid.

None

After assisting with administration of the auto-injector:

Wait a few minutes to see if the person improves; if not, administer another dose in the same leg.

Recheck breathing and observe the response to the medication

Find out what happened and how long they have had this allergy.

All of the above

None

Time’s up

Schedule II Opioid Drugs

Welcome to your Schedule II Opioid Drugs Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - Opioid Drugs

Pause

Reading Material

Full Name

Phone

The analgesic used most as first line treatment options for patients with dental pain is:

Hydrocodone

Acetaminophen

NSAIDs

Codeine

None

Pain is:

The most common dental complaint

Unavoidable in some cases

A fact of life

Only minor in most cases

None

Prescriptions for Schedule II drugs may include how many refills?

None

Records of Schedule II-IV controlled substances must be maintained for at least ____ years.

None

NSAIDs are used to help manage pain, and reduce inflammation after dental treatment because:

It is non-addictive

It has a low incidence of side effects

It generally is equivalent to or better than using opioids

All are correct

None

_______ is the agency that is responsible for administering and enforcing California laws that pertain to controlled substances.

Cal/OSHA

Department of Public Health

Department of Justice

California Dental Board

None

Interdisciplinary care for chronic orofacial pain is indicated, and opioids should only be prescribed for acute dental pain for a maximum of ______ days.

2 days

3 days

4 days

5 days

None

_____________ and _____________ drugs are the most commonly prescribed (and most often abused) Opioids.

Hydrocodone

Oxycodone

Acetaminophen

Both a and b are correct

None

The unauthorized distribution of prescription drugs is referred to as:

Addiction

Diversion

OUD

SUD

None

Time’s up

Radiation Safety - X-Ray

Welcome to your Radiation Safety – X-Ray Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - Radiation Safety

Pause

Video Material

Reading Material

Full Name

Phone

When taking dental radiographs, the area with potential to cause most cross contamination is?

Lead apron is not kept clean

Saliva or blood found on exposed film

Not sterilizing counter tops

Not placing head cover on chair

None

The______________ is rectangular lead disk that is placed over the opening of the

X-Ray tube

Collimater

X-Ray Head

X-Ray Film

None

X-ray and light are are forms of radiation that can be directed in a specific direction.

True

False

None

Chemical that works on the crystal to produce the image on the film.

Fixer

Water wash

Dryer

Developer

None

This small film is worn whenever you are in the office and measures any radiation that you might receive as an operator or when performing other office tasks.

Dosimeter Badge

Lead Apron

PID

RINN

None

The setting that regulates the quantity of x-ray produced during an exposure

Kilovolt Peak

Milliampere

PID

High Voltage

None

A Collimator contains a hole that limits the size of the primary beam to no more than_______ inches in diameter at the skin of the patient.

.70”

2 “

2.75”

1.5”

None

A maxillary occlusal exposure is

Placed vertically and the cone is directly above patients face.

Placed above the bridge of the nose for maxillary exposure with +65 -+ vertical angulation.

Placed beneath the mandible at a 90° angle.

Placed on the tongue with the patients mouth wide open.

None

During the processing technique, the chemical solutions convert the latent x-ray film image into a visible one.

TRUE

FALSE

None

Which protects the surrounding tissue from unnecessary exposure by absorbing the x-ray?

Inner wrap

Outer wrap & Foil

Dot

Foil

None

A child requires___________________ when taking x-rays?

The same amount of exposure as an adult

More exposure than an adult

Less exposure than an adult

No exposure

None

Processing utilizing an automatic film processing system is a faster more effective method of film processing?

True

False

None

The bitewings are usually taken as part of the FMX and is also used as a separate technique when an FMX is not indicated

True

False

None

Within the x-ray tube there are two electrodes, the positive electrode is the________

Cathode

Anode

Dentin

Filament

None

Scattered radiation can be controlled by?

Proper shielding of patient

Proper shielding of operator

Shielding within the x-ray tube

All of the above

None

Rem determines the_______________

Placement of the film

Unit of measure of x-ray exposure

X-ray Survey

High Speed Film

None

When an excessive vertical angle is used when taking x-rays the resulting image will be

Foreshortened

Foggy

Overlapped

Cone Cut

None

What is considered an extra-oral x-ray?

Intra Oral

Bitewing

Panoramic

Periapical

None

Avoid exposing pregnant women in their first trimester. Avoid retaking more than 3 radiographs on any patient when doing a full FMX.

Both statements are False

First statement is TRUE, second statement if FALSE.

Both statements are TRUE.

First statement is FALSE, second statement is TRUE.

None

This concept endorses the use of the lowest possible exposure to the patient and operator to x-ray exposure

Primary Radiation

Lead foil

Latent Image

ALARA

None

The ________ setting regulates the speed and penetrating power of the x-ray

Timer

kVp

Collimator

None

Who is responsible for ordering radiographs?

Dentist

Hygienist

Dental Assistant

Front Office

None

Which film is considered the best for caries detection by the dentist?

Periapical

Occlusal

Panoramic

Bitewing

None

One of the signs of over exposure to radiation is

Hyperactivity

Loss of eyesight

Hunger

Hair Loss

Numbness in fingers

All of the above

None

When exposing and processing radiographs, it is essential as with any dental treatment that infection control procedures are carefully followed.

True

False

None

The best film sizes to use on a child are

Size 2 – 4

Size 5 – 6

Size 0 – 2

Size 3 only

None

PID stands for

Position Indicator Device

Perfect Incisal Development

Pediatric Indicating Device

Patient Indicator Device

None

The most sensitive cells to X-rays are those that are more specialized and reproduced more quickly are?

White and Rd blood cells

Thyroid

Male testes

Bone marrow

Cells of embryos

All of the above

None

___________ is an invisible high energy wave that can penetrate solid objects.

X-Ray

Primary Beam

Light

Anode

None

What is commonly used to assist in taking good dental x-rays?

Lead Apron

Snaparay

RINNs

Bite tabs

Both A and C are correct

B, C, and D are correct

None

Time’s up

Asthma

Welcome to your Asthma Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Video Material

Full Name

Phone

An asthma attack may make which difficult?

Walking

Riding a bicycle

Breathing

None are correct

None

The person suffering from an asthma attack should try to hold his/her breath and count to:

None

The medications may be repeated every _____ to _____ minutes thereafter.

10 to 15

5 to 10

Only once

A & B are correct

None

Have the person rinse out his or her mouth with:

Soda

Iced tea

Water

Punch

None

Do not give medication if:

The inhaler expiration date has expired

The wrong name is on the inhaler

Always give medication

A & B are correct

None

To care for shock:

Keep the person from getting chilled or overheated

Make the person jog in place

Tell the person jokes

Give the person food

None

The medication may be repeated once after _____ minute(s).

5 Minutes

2 Minutes

Only once

Never

None

Which of the following are signals of an asthma attack?

Trouble breathing

Tightness in the chest

Sweating

All of the above

None

Which of the following are triggers of an asthma attack?

Hard exercise

Plants and mold

Colds

All of the above

None

To care for a person having an asthma attack you should:

Give 5 blows to the person’s back

Call 9-1-1

Lay the person back and start CPR

Help the person jog in place

None

Time’s up

California Dental Practice Act

Welcome to your California Dental Practice Act Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - California Practice Act

Pause

Reading Material

Full Name

Phone

Direct supervision by the dentist means:

The dentist must be somewhere in the State of California During the performance of the procedure by the auxiliary

The dentist must be physically present in the office during the procedure.

The dentist must be directly involved in ordering the performance of the procedure

Both B and C are correct

None of the above

None

Which of the following are unlicensed DA duties?

Charting/Recording

Sterilization

Infection Control

All of the above

None

An additional permit is required for an RDA to perform orthodontic functions.

True

False

None

The Dental Board has the authority to create new regulations relating to the practice of dentistry.

True

False

None

All licenses must be renewed every _______ year(s) or they will expire.

One

Two

Ten

Dental licenses never expire

None

If a license has been expired for more than 5 years it is automatically cancelled and cannot be renewed.

True

False

None

General supervision means that the dentist orders the auxiliary to perform certain functions that they are licensed to do. The dentist does not need to be physically present in the facility at the time of the function.

True

False

None

Which of the following is not a permissible function of an RDA?

Coronal Polishing

Prescribing Medications

Pit and Fissure Sealants

All of the above

None

The Board may revoke a dental professional’s license if they are found to be abusing drugs or alcohol.

True

False

None

Which of the following are mandated reporters?

DDS

RDH

RDA

All are correct

None

The Dental Board of California requires Dental Assistants to obtain a license prior to working in a dental office.

True

False

None

The registered dental hygienist in California can administer local anesthetic with permit.

True

False

None

Which of the following is considered child abuse?

Physical abuse

Sexual abuse

Neglect & Abandonment

Emotional or Psychological Abuse

All are correct

None

A dental material fact sheet must be provided to every new patient and to patients of record prior to the performance of restorative dental treatment.

True

False

None

Special permits are required for the administration of general anesthesia or conscious sedation.

True

False

None

Time’s up

Digital Radiation and X-Ray Technique

Welcome to your California Digital Radiation and X-Ray Technique Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Reading Material

Full Name

Phone

When the green light on the interface is illuminated, it indicates:

The system is ready for you to take the image.

The Schick 33 system if broken.

The sensor is not connected to the interface.

Proper current condition for the sensor.

None

After using the sheath please:

Do not tug at the cable.

Wipe with cavi-wipe.

Place a new sheath.

All of the above.

None

The dentist is responsible for having dental assistants credentialed and trained to expose and process radiographs.

True

False

None

The hand-held systems have a variety of settings:

Military bases

Dental offices

Clinics

All of the above

None

The sensor sheaths are reusable.

True

False

None

What is another type of indirect digital imaging?

SLR 500

Analog image

Storage phosphor imaging

There is only one kind

None

Digital radiography is expected to eventually replace conventional film exposure.

True

False

None

What is the purpose of importing and exporting digital images?

For insurance companies

For other dentists

For dental specialists

All of the above.

None

Which dentist would use 3-D imaging?

Endodontics

Periodontics

All of the above

None

Which of the following is considered extraoral film?

Panoramic radiograph

Occlusal radiograph

Cephalometric radiograph

Both A and C

None

Time’s up

AHA CPR/AED Training

Welcome to your AHA CPR/AED Training Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - CPR/Basic Life Support

Pause

Video Material

Reading Material

Full Name

Phone

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 67-year-old man is found unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse. You and a second rescuer begin performing high-quality CPR. When should rescuers switch positions during CPR?

Never switch rescuers

When placing the AED pads

About every 2 minutes

At 5-minute intervals

None

You notice the person giving chest compressions is not allowing for complete chest recoil. What is your next course of action?

Stand back and await direction from the second rescuer

Tell the rescuer the compressions are wrong

Immediately take over chest compressions

Tell the compressor you notice decreased chest recoil

None

"The team functions smoothly when all team members know their positions, functions, and tasks during a resuscitation attempt." Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

Clear roles and responsibilities

Knowing your limitations

Constructive intervention

Mutual respect

None

Early defibrillation is a link in the adult Chain of Survival. Why is this important to survival?

It prevents respiratory arrest.

It prevents cardiac arrest.

It provides normal respiration.

It eliminates the abnormal heart rhythm.

None

What special circumstance should a rescuer consider when using an AED?

They should never use an AED on someone with an implanted pacemaker.

On a hairy chest, the pads may not stick and may fail to deliver a shock.

AEDs can only be used while a person is submerged in water.

They should never remove a transdermal medication patch before applying AED pads.

None

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 53-year-old woman collapses while gardening. She is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a pulse. A neighbor, who is an emergency medical technician, rushes to her with an AED. When the AED arrives, what is the first step for using it?

Apply the pads to the chest

Press the Shock button

Turn on the AED

Clear the patient

None

After the AED pads are attached to the person, the AED detects ventricular fibrillation. What is the next step when using an AED?

Check for a carotid pulse

Follow the AED prompts

Clear the patient

Press the Shock button

None

What should you do if you need to use an AED on someone who has been submerged in water?

Do not pull the person out of the water, and wipe the chest

Pull the person out of the water, but do not use the AED

Pull the person out of the water, and wipe the chest

Do not move the person, and do not use the AED

None

Why is defibrillation important?

It is not important for cardiac arrest.

It prevents rearrest from occurring.

There is a 100% success rate.

It can restore a regular cardiac rhythm.

None

Which adult victim requires high-quality CPR?

Has normal breathing and has a pulse

Has no normal breathing and no pulse

Has a pulse and is having trouble breathing

Has a strong pulse and is breathing

None

Why is allowing complete chest recoil important when performing high-quality CPR?

There will be a reduction of rescuer fatigue.

The rate of chest compressions will increase.

The heart will adequately refill between compressions.

It will reduce the risk of rib fractures.

None

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A middle-aged man collapses. You and a second rescuer go to the victim and find that he is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a pulse. Which action is most likely to positively impact his survival?

Performing high-quality CPR

Providing rescue breaths

Ensuring scene safety

Checking the pulse frequently

None

You and another rescuer begin CPR. After a few cycles, you notice the chest compression rate is slowing. What should you say to offer constructive feedback?

“You need to compress at a rate of 80 to 120 per minute.”

“You need to compress at a rate of at least 100 per minute.”

“You need to compress at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute.”

“You need to compress at a rate of at least 120 per minute.”

None

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: An 8-month-old infant is eating and suddenly begins to cough. The infant is unable to make any noise shortly after. You pick up the infant and shout for help. You have determined that the infant is responsive and choking with a severe airway obstruction. How do you relieve the airway obstruction?

Give abdominal thrusts

Give sets of 5 back slaps and 5 chest thrusts

Begin 2 thumb‒encircling hands chest compressions

Encourage the infant to cough

None

The infant becomes unresponsive. Which action do you perform to relieve choking in an unresponsive infant?

Perform CPR, and look in the mouth for the obstructing object before you give each breath

Attempt a blind finger sweep when giving breaths to remove the obstructing object

Give sets of 5 back slaps and 5 chest thrusts

Give sets of 5 abdominal thrusts and 5 back slaps

None

What ratio for compressions to breaths should be used for 1-rescuer infant CPR?

Give 15 compressions to 2 breaths

Give 20 compressions to 2 breaths

Give 5 compressions to 1 breath

Give 30 compressions to 2 breaths

None

When you are performing CPR on an unresponsive person whom you know is choking, what modification should you incorporate?

There are no modifications to CPR for an unresponsive choking victim.

You should attempt a jaw thrust instead of a head tilt‒chin lift.

Each time you open the airway, you look for the obstructing object.

You do not give breaths to an unresponsive choking victim.

None

How can rescuers ensure that they are providing effective breaths when using a bag-mask device?

Observing the chest rise with each breath

Always having oxygen attached to the bag

Delivering breaths quickly and forcefully

Allowing air to release around the mask

None

Which characteristics of chest compressions in high-quality CPR are given to a child?

At least one third the depth of the chest, approximately 5 cm5 cm

At least one fourth the depth of the chest, approximately 4 cm

At least two thirds the depth of the chest, approximately 10 cm

At least one half the depth of the chest, approximately 8 cm

None

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 9-year-old child has suddenly collapsed. After confirming that the scene is safe, a single rescuer determines that the child is in cardiac arrest, shouts for nearby help, and activates the emergency response system by using his mobile device. He immediately begins performing high-quality CPR. Two additional rescuers immediately arrive to assist in the resuscitation attempt. What actions should occur next to support a team-based resuscitation attempt?

Two rescuers should alternate using the AED and giving breaths.

Two rescuers should operate the AED while the third rescuer gives breaths.

Two rescuers should alternate giving high-quality chest compressions.

One rescuer should give CPR while the other 2 wait for advanced life support to arrive.

None

Two rescuers begin high-quality CPR while the third rescuer leaves to get the AED. What action supports 2-rescuer CPR?

Alternating the AED role every 2 minutes

Alternating the compressor role every 2 minutes

Alternating giving shocks every 3 cycles

Alternating giving rescue breaths every 3 cycles

None

While performing high-quality CPR on an adult, what action should you ensure is being accomplished?

Allowing the chest to recoil to at least 2.5 cm

Placing hands on the upper third of the sternum

Maintaining a compression rate of 90 to 120/min

Compressing to a depth of at least 5 cm

None

A victim with a foreign-body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive. What is your first course of action?

Start CPR, beginning with chest compressions

Roll the victim over and perform back blows

Perform abdominal thrusts

Perform blind finger sweeps

None

"Members of the team know their boundaries and ask for help before the resuscitation attempt worsens." Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

Knowledge sharing

Summarizing and reevaluation

Constructive intervention

Knowing your limitations

None

You witness someone suddenly collapse. The person is unresponsive, you hear gasping sounds, and there is no pulse. You phone the local emergency response number. What should you do next?

Begin CPR; the gasps are not normal breathing

Give rescue breaths only; the gasps are not normal breathing

Begin CPR even though gasping is normal breathing

Monitor the patient; the gasps are considered normal breathing

None

Time’s up