CDC Course Homework

CDC Course Homework Test

Below is the list of reading material and test for your course. Click the name of your course to begin your reading and exam. Upon completion and passing exam, your printed certificate will be emailed directly to CDC. You will not need to print the certificate.

Please scroll down to see the course homework

Dental Assisting

Coronal Polish
Radiation Safety - X-Ray (This test is for certification)
8 Hour Infection Control
AHA CPR/AED Training
California Dental Practice Act
Pit & Fissure Sealants

Continuing Education (CEU)

2 Hour Infection Control
Epinephrine
Asthma
Schedule II Opioid Drugs
Basic First Aid
Ultrasonic Scaling
OSHA Annual Bloodborne Pathogens
Digital Radiation and X-Ray Technique
California Dental Practice Act
AHA CPR/AED Training

2 Hour Infection Control

Welcome to your 2 Hour Infection Control Exam.
You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - 2 Hour Infection Control
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  • 2 Hour Infection Control

Reading Material

High level disinfectants kill micro-organisms, except spores with prolonged contact may kill endospores.

When placing a used needle in a sharps container you should:

Which of the following cause damage to latex gloves?

DUWL (Dental Unit Water Lines) should be flushed:

As a patient, you should always ask about the dental office sterilization protocol and examine the room for cleanliness.

PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) consists of:

Bacterial spores are harder to kill than fungus.

If you need to retrieve an item in a drawer during a procedure and your gloves are contaminated, you should:

When taking x-rays, the collimator is never in contact with the patients mouth so there is no need to cover or disinfect it after each patient.

Heat sterilizers should be spore tested:

It is illegal to refuse treatment to an HIV infected patient.

A disinfectant should be:

Alginate impressions do not need to be sterilized because they need to be poured up right away due to possible shrinkage and the store will not carry any bacteria.

Hepatitis has 5 main categories, which of the following apply?

The definition of “disinfection” in this course is:

8 Hour Infection Control

Welcome to your 8 Hour Infection Control Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - 8 Hour Infection Control
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Reading Material

Handwashing technique includes the use of:

Dental unit waterlines will be flushed for how long between patients?

When should face masks be changed?

The average risk of HIV infection after a needle stick exposure to HIV-infected blood is:

Instruments should be packaged before sterilization to:

Universal precautions are strategies used to _____________ the risk of transmission of pathogens in the health-care setting.

Proper spore testing verification can be accomplished by:

Semi-critical instruments:

Which of the following statements is true?

The greatest risk of infection from a needle stick is from:

When recapping an anesthetic needle, it is BEST to:

When using universal precautions, _____________ infection control procedures are used for all patients.

Counter tops and unit surfaces should be cleaned using 2×2 or 4×4 soaked in disinfectant and decontaminant cleaner, wipe all counter tops using “spray, wipe, spray technique” , never allow the gauze to go back over a previously cleared area.

Gloves must be worn when there is the potential for contacting:

Steam sterilization under pressure can be achieved with:

What is the most important means of preventing disease transmission?

The guidelines for infection control standard are set by:

Handwashing is not necessary when taking intra-oral dental radiographs because gloves are always worn.

Face shields may be worn:

Disinfecting agents for environmental surfaces should:

What must be right after exposure?

Which of the following is not considered personal protective equipment? Thoroughly reviewed throughout pages

What is the water temperature that should be used when washing hands?

Dental personnel are potentially exposed to:

All patients must be treated equally regardless of physical condition. A patient with a communicable disease is treated with more caution.

The letters CDC stand for:

Clean and disinfect all dental impressions immediately after removal from the patient’s mouth.

Coronal Polish

Welcome to your Coronal Polish Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - Coronal Polish
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Reading Material

Polishing agents produce:

Which types of polishing agent is used on a denture?

Tetracycline stain color may range from:

This is the best method to use when holding a handpiece to accomplish this grasp

Place the pad of the _________ finger on a stable tooth surface.

If a patient has HIV, Hepatitis, and/or Herpes:

Disclosing agents are generally made from the same dye used in food coloring:

Dilantin is a drug that may cause gingival hyperplasia (tissue overgrowth) and is associated with:

Green stain is usually associated with:

All new patients should fill out a health history:

Orange line stain:

This type of stain is associated primarily with plaque formation and poor oral hygiene.

Coronal polishing is a task designated by the California Dental Practice Act to the:

As food is moved across the occlusal surfaces of the teeth:

Plaque needs to be removed from the tooth surface every:

Pressure helps control the rate of abrasion, firmer pressure results in:

Which of the following is not an extrinsic stain?

It is best to establish a fulcrum:

Never use Iodine solution on a ________________ patient.

This stain cannot be removed by polishing:

AHA CPR/AED Training

Welcome to your AHA CPR/AED Training Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - CPR/Basic Life Support
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Video Material

Reading Material

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 67-year-old man is found unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse. You and a second rescuer begin performing high-quality CPR. When should rescuers switch positions during CPR?

You notice the person giving chest compressions is not allowing for complete chest recoil. What is your next course of action?

"The team functions smoothly when all team members know their positions, functions, and tasks during a resuscitation attempt." Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

Early defibrillation is a link in the adult Chain of Survival. Why is this important to survival?

What special circumstance should a rescuer consider when using an AED?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 53-year-old woman collapses while gardening. She is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a pulse. A neighbor, who is an emergency medical technician, rushes to her with an AED. When the AED arrives, what is the first step for using it?

After the AED pads are attached to the person, the AED detects ventricular fibrillation. What is the next step when using an AED?

What should you do if you need to use an AED on someone who has been submerged in water?

Why is defibrillation important?

Which adult victim requires high-quality CPR?

Why is allowing complete chest recoil important when performing high-quality CPR?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A middle-aged man collapses. You and a second rescuer go to the victim and find that he is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a pulse. Which action is most likely to positively impact his survival?

You and another rescuer begin CPR. After a few cycles, you notice the chest compression rate is slowing. What should you say to offer constructive feedback?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: An 8-month-old infant is eating and suddenly begins to cough. The infant is unable to make any noise shortly after. You pick up the infant and shout for help. You have determined that the infant is responsive and choking with a severe airway obstruction. How do you relieve the airway obstruction?

The infant becomes unresponsive. Which action do you perform to relieve choking in an unresponsive infant?

What ratio for compressions to breaths should be used for 1-rescuer infant CPR?

When you are performing CPR on an unresponsive person whom you know is choking, what modification should you incorporate?

How can rescuers ensure that they are providing effective breaths when using a bag-mask device?

Which characteristics of chest compressions in high-quality CPR are given to a child?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 9-year-old child has suddenly collapsed. After confirming that the scene is safe, a single rescuer determines that the child is in cardiac arrest, shouts for nearby help, and activates the emergency response system by using his mobile device. He immediately begins performing high-quality CPR. Two additional rescuers immediately arrive to assist in the resuscitation attempt. What actions should occur next to support a team-based resuscitation attempt?

Two rescuers begin high-quality CPR while the third rescuer leaves to get the AED. What action supports 2-rescuer CPR?

While performing high-quality CPR on an adult, what action should you ensure is being accomplished?

A victim with a foreign-body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive. What is your first course of action?

"Members of the team know their boundaries and ask for help before the resuscitation attempt worsens." Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

You witness someone suddenly collapse. The person is unresponsive, you hear gasping sounds, and there is no pulse. You phone the local emergency response number. What should you do next?

Basic First Aid

Welcome to your Basic First Aid Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

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In general, a splint should be

You suspect that someone is having a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting and is having trouble breathing. What should you do?

What should you do for a person with heat exhaustion?

What is the first step in caring for a bleeding wound?

In stroke recognition, F.A.S.T. means:

A woman burned her hand in the lunchroom. You should

The progression that heat-related emergencies can follow from early stage (least severe) to late stage (most severe) is:

What signals should you look for to determine if a person is bleeding internally?

What sudden illness is usually caused by a blockage of blood flow to the brain?

Which type of injury involves an open wound where the bone has torn through the skin?

How should you care for a person with a possible head, neck or back injury?

How should you care for someone with frostbitten fingers?

What should you do if you suspect that a conscious person has been poisoned?

When caring for a person who is having a seizure, you should

This sudden illness results from too much or too little sugar in the person’s blood. What is it?

OSHA Annual Bloodborne Pathogens

Welcome to your OSHA Annual Bloodborne Pathogens Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Video Material

Biohazard signs should be posted at entrances of work areas where potential pathogens may be present.

All emergency care workers who, as part of their job duties, give assistance in any incident involving blood or other potentially infectious materials, regardless of whether a specific exposure incident occurs, must be offered the full Hepatitis B vaccination series.

There is no confirmed evidence that indicates that hepatitis B vaccine can cause chronic illness.

Personal protective equipment (PPE) includes disposable gloves, gowns, masks, and shields, protective eyewear and breathing barriers.

Voluntary Good Samaritan acts that involve exposure to blood or other infectious materials are not covered by blood borne pathogens standard.

The disease process begins when a pathogen enters a person’s body.

HBV is the virus that causes AIDS.

Antibodies are usually effective at fighting disease.

Exposure determination is based on the availability or use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

Antibiotics are effective medicines for treating viral infections.

Ultrasonic Scaling

Welcome to your Ultrasonic Scaling Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - Ultrasonic Scaling
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Reading Material

The ultrasonic scaler must never be used on a patient without consulting with the patient’s physician:

Why is it recommended that water be used with the ultrasonic unit when:

When tuning the ultrasonic unit prior to beginning treatment, always:

The best way to hold the handpiece when removing cement from the coronal surface of the tooth using an ultrasonic scaler is:

When using the ultrasonic unit to remove dental cement, what portion of the scaler tip is used?

An RDA who has successfully completed a Board Approved course in ultrasonic scaling may legally:

What is the best place for a fulcrum when removing cement using the ultrasonic scaler?

The ultrasonic scaling unit forces the breakdown of cement for removal by:

Subgingival calculus or cement subgingival is removed by:

The working tip of the ultrasonic unit should be kept in constant motion in order to avoid:

The DPA designates the RDA in the use of an ultrasonic scaler unit to:

Improper use of the ultrasonic unit may result in:

What characteristic of the ultrasonic scaling unit causes the cement to fracture and fall off?

In what direction should the operator move the handpiece when removing cement?

The ultrasonic scaler tip is placed at ____________ degree angle to the tooth surface.

Pit & Fissure Sealants

Welcome to your Pit & Fissure Sealants Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - Pit & Fissure Sealants
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Video Material

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If the tooth is properly etched, the enamel will appear:

Products are generally stored at:

The part of the portion of the crown that is visible in the mouth is:

Who can legally perform Pit and Fissure Sealants on patients?

The primary benefit of a filled sealant when compared to an unfiled is:

Why are certain teeth more susceptible to caries formation?

Sealants are recommended for:

The syringe tip and/or brush is gently moved to stir the sealant materialduring placement to:

A dental sealant is only effective if:

Etch each tooth for a minimum of:

The part of the tooth that is covered with enamel is:

The primary purpose of dental sealants is:

It is important that sealant products are not stored:

What patient safety precautions should be considered when placing sealants?

After placement of sealants, it is important to:

What is the primary reason for sealant failure?

Fulcrum helps to establish stability when supporting the:

Personal Protective Equipment consists of:

Once placed, sealants must be cured for a minimum of:

If saliva does come into contact with the tooth surface:

Epinephrine

Welcome to your Epinephrine Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Video Material
In a life-threatening emergency, it is allowable to use another person’s prescription auto-injector

An epinephrine auto-injector may be purchased over the counter and administered to any person showing signals of a severe allergic reaction.

With an auto-injector, it is not necessary to fill the syringe with the medication.

Call 9-1-1 or the local emergency number if the person:

When assisting a person to self-inject the medication during an anaphylactic reaction –

After assisting with administration of the auto-injector:

Which of the following is a signal of a mild reaction to a bit or sting?

When interviewing the person, all the following are correct except for:

An antigen is a foreign substance that brings on an allergic reaction.

Some anaphylaxis kits also contain antihistamine in pill form.

Schedule II Opioid Drugs

Welcome to your Schedule II Opioid Drugs Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - Opioid Drugs
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Reading Material

The unauthorized distribution of prescription drugs is referred to as:

_____________ and _____________ drugs are the most commonly prescribed (and most often abused) Opioids.

NSAIDs are used to help manage pain, and reduce inflammation after dental treatment because:

The analgesic used most as first line treatment options for patients with dental pain is:

Pain is:

Interdisciplinary care for chronic orofacial pain is indicated, and opioids should only be prescribed for acute dental pain for a maximum of ______ days.

Prescriptions for Schedule II drugs may include how many refills?

_______ is the agency that is responsible for administering and enforcing California laws that pertain to controlled substances.

Records of Schedule II-IV controlled substances must be maintained for at least ____ years.

Radiation Safety - X-Ray

Welcome to your Radiation Safety – X-Ray Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - Radiation Safety
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Processing utilizing an automatic film processing system is a faster more effective method of film processing?

Within the x-ray tube there are two electrodes, the positive electrode is the________

Avoid exposing pregnant women in their first trimester. Avoid retaking more than 3 radiographs on any patient when doing a full FMX.

The______________ is rectangular lead disk that is placed over the opening of the

The best film sizes to use on a child are

X-ray and light are are forms of radiation that can be directed in a specific direction.

When taking dental radiographs, the area with potential to cause most cross contamination is?

Which film is considered the best for caries detection by the dentist?

The bitewings are usually taken as part of the FMX and is also used as a separate technique when an FMX is not indicated

A maxillary occlusal exposure is

This concept endorses the use of the lowest possible exposure to the patient and operator to x-ray exposure

Who is responsible for ordering radiographs?

The ________ setting regulates the speed and penetrating power of the x-ray

Scattered radiation can be controlled by?

The most sensitive cells to X-rays are those that are more specialized and reproduced more quickly are?

A Collimator contains a hole that limits the size of the primary beam to no more than_______ inches in diameter at the skin of the patient.

Rem determines the_______________

Chemical that works on the crystal to produce the image on the film.

A child requires___________________ when taking x-rays?

When exposing and processing radiographs, it is essential as with any dental treatment that infection control procedures are carefully followed.

One of the signs of over exposure to radiation is

During the processing technique, the chemical solutions convert the latent x-ray film image into a visible one.

This small film is worn whenever you are in the office and measures any radiation that you might receive as an operator or when performing other office tasks.

What is commonly used to assist in taking good dental x-rays?

Which protects the surrounding tissue from unnecessary exposure by absorbing the x-ray?

The setting that regulates the quantity of x-ray produced during an exposure

PID stands for

What is considered an extra-oral x-ray?

When an excessive vertical angle is used when taking x-rays the resulting image will be

___________ is an invisible high energy wave that can penetrate solid objects.

Asthma

Welcome to your Asthma Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Video Material
To care for a person having an asthma attack you should:

Which of the following are triggers of an asthma attack?

The medication may be repeated once after _____ minute(s).

An asthma attack may make which difficult?

The medications may be repeated every _____ to _____ minutes thereafter.

Do not give medication if:

The person suffering from an asthma attack should try to hold his/her breath and count to:

Which of the following are signals of an asthma attack?

To care for shock:

Have the person rinse out his or her mouth with:

California Dental Practice Act

Welcome to your California Dental Practice Act Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - California Practice Act
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Reading Material

The registered dental hygienist in California can administer local anesthetic with permit.

Which of the following are mandated reporters?

Special permits are required for the administration of general anesthesia or conscious sedation.

Which of the following are unlicensed DA duties?

All licenses must be renewed every _______ year(s) or they will expire.

Which of the following is not a permissible function of an RDA?

A dental material fact sheet must be provided to every new patient and to patients of record prior to the performance of restorative dental treatment.

If a license has been expired for more than 5 years it is automatically cancelled and cannot be renewed.

General supervision means that the dentist orders the auxiliary to perform certain functions that they are licensed to do. The dentist does not need to be physically present in the facility at the time of the function.

Which of the following is considered child abuse?

The Board may revoke a dental professional’s license if they are found to be abusing drugs or alcohol.

An additional permit is required for an RDA to perform orthodontic functions.

The Dental Board of California requires Dental Assistants to obtain a license prior to working in a dental office.

The Dental Board has the authority to create new regulations relating to the practice of dentistry.

Direct supervision by the dentist means:

Digital Radiation and X-Ray Technique

Welcome to your California Digital Radiation and X-Ray Technique Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Reading Material

The sensor sheaths are reusable.

What is another type of indirect digital imaging?

Which of the following is considered extraoral film?

After using the sheath please:

When the green light on the interface is illuminated, it indicates:

The dentist is responsible for having dental assistants credentialed and trained to expose and process radiographs.

The hand-held systems have a variety of settings:

Which dentist would use 3-D imaging?

Digital radiography is expected to eventually replace conventional film exposure.

What is the purpose of importing and exporting digital images?

AHA CPR/AED Training

Welcome to your AHA CPR/AED Training Exam. You may read or listen to the reading material below:

Audio - CPR/Basic Life Support
Pause

Video Material

Reading Material

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 67-year-old man is found unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse. You and a second rescuer begin performing high-quality CPR. When should rescuers switch positions during CPR?

You notice the person giving chest compressions is not allowing for complete chest recoil. What is your next course of action?

"The team functions smoothly when all team members know their positions, functions, and tasks during a resuscitation attempt." Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

Early defibrillation is a link in the adult Chain of Survival. Why is this important to survival?

What special circumstance should a rescuer consider when using an AED?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 53-year-old woman collapses while gardening. She is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a pulse. A neighbor, who is an emergency medical technician, rushes to her with an AED. When the AED arrives, what is the first step for using it?

After the AED pads are attached to the person, the AED detects ventricular fibrillation. What is the next step when using an AED?

What should you do if you need to use an AED on someone who has been submerged in water?

Why is defibrillation important?

Which adult victim requires high-quality CPR?

Why is allowing complete chest recoil important when performing high-quality CPR?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A middle-aged man collapses. You and a second rescuer go to the victim and find that he is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a pulse. Which action is most likely to positively impact his survival?

You and another rescuer begin CPR. After a few cycles, you notice the chest compression rate is slowing. What should you say to offer constructive feedback?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: An 8-month-old infant is eating and suddenly begins to cough. The infant is unable to make any noise shortly after. You pick up the infant and shout for help. You have determined that the infant is responsive and choking with a severe airway obstruction. How do you relieve the airway obstruction?

The infant becomes unresponsive. Which action do you perform to relieve choking in an unresponsive infant?

What ratio for compressions to breaths should be used for 1-rescuer infant CPR?

When you are performing CPR on an unresponsive person whom you know is choking, what modification should you incorporate?

How can rescuers ensure that they are providing effective breaths when using a bag-mask device?

Which characteristics of chest compressions in high-quality CPR are given to a child?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 9-year-old child has suddenly collapsed. After confirming that the scene is safe, a single rescuer determines that the child is in cardiac arrest, shouts for nearby help, and activates the emergency response system by using his mobile device. He immediately begins performing high-quality CPR. Two additional rescuers immediately arrive to assist in the resuscitation attempt. What actions should occur next to support a team-based resuscitation attempt?

Two rescuers begin high-quality CPR while the third rescuer leaves to get the AED. What action supports 2-rescuer CPR?

While performing high-quality CPR on an adult, what action should you ensure is being accomplished?

A victim with a foreign-body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive. What is your first course of action?

"Members of the team know their boundaries and ask for help before the resuscitation attempt worsens." Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

You witness someone suddenly collapse. The person is unresponsive, you hear gasping sounds, and there is no pulse. You phone the local emergency response number. What should you do next?

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