CDC Course Homework

Below is the list of reading material and test for your course. Click the name of your course to begin your reading and exam. Upon completion and passing exam, your printed certificate will be emailed directly to CDC. You will not need to print the certificate.

Please scroll down to see the course homework

2 Hour Infection Control

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Hepatitis has 5 main categories, which of the following apply?

Alginate impressions do not need to be sterilized because they need to be poured up right away due to possible shrinkage and the store will not carry any bacteria.

The definition of “disinfection” in this course is:

If you need to retrieve an item in a drawer during a procedure and your gloves are contaminated, you should:

It is illegal to refuse treatment to an HIV infected patient.

Bacterial spores are harder to kill than fungus.

Heat sterilizers should be spore tested:

A disinfectant should be:

PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) consists of:

High level disinfectants kill micro-organisms, except spores with prolonged contact may kill endospores.

Which of the following cause damage to latex gloves?

When taking x-rays, the collimator is never in contact with the patients mouth so there is no need to cover or disinfect it after each patient.

DUWL (Dental Unit Water Lines) should be flushed:

When placing a used needle in a sharps container you should:

As a patient, you should always ask about the dental office sterilization protocol and examine the room for cleanliness.

8 Hour Infection Control

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Face shields may be worn:

When using universal precautions, _____________ infection control procedures are used for all patients.

Disinfecting agents for environmental surfaces should:

Proper spore testing verification can be accomplished by:

Dental unit waterlines will be flushed for how long between patients?

What must be right after exposure?

Gloves must be worn when there is the potential for contacting:

Dental personnel are potentially exposed to:

Universal precautions are strategies used to _____________ the risk of transmission of pathogens in the health-care setting.

Handwashing is not necessary when taking intra-oral dental radiographs because gloves are always worn.

Counter tops and unit surfaces should be cleaned using 2×2 or 4×4 soaked in disinfectant and decontaminant cleaner, wipe all counter tops using “spray, wipe, spray technique” , never allow the gauze to go back over a previously cleared area.

The letters CDC stand for:

Instruments should be packaged before sterilization to:

All patients must be treated equally regardless of physical condition. A patient with a communicable disease is treated with more caution.

When recapping an anesthetic needle, it is BEST to:

The guidelines for infection control standard are set by:

Which of the following is not considered personal protective equipment? Thoroughly reviewed throughout pages

Steam sterilization under pressure can be achieved with:

What is the most important means of preventing disease transmission?

Clean and disinfect all dental impressions immediately after removal from the patient’s mouth.

Which of the following statements is true?

The average risk of HIV infection after a needle stick exposure to HIV-infected blood is:

Handwashing technique includes the use of:

What is the water temperature that should be used when washing hands?

Semi-critical instruments:

The greatest risk of infection from a needle stick is from:

When should face masks be changed?

Asthma

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Have the person rinse out his or her mouth with:

The person suffering from an asthma attack should try to hold his/her breath and count to:

The medication may be repeated once after _____ minute(s).

The medications may be repeated every _____ to _____ minutes thereafter.

An asthma attack may make which difficult?

To care for shock:

Which of the following are triggers of an asthma attack?

To care for a person having an asthma attack you should:

Do not give medication if:

Which of the following are signals of an asthma attack?

Bloodborne Pathogens

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Exposure determination is based on the availability or use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

Personal protective equipment (PPE) includes disposable gloves, gowns, masks, and shields, protective eyewear and breathing barriers.

Antibodies are usually effective at fighting disease.

All emergency care workers who, as part of their job duties, give assistance in any incident involving blood or other potentially infectious materials, regardless of whether a specific exposure incident occurs, must be offered the full Hepatitis B vaccination series.

There is no confirmed evidence that indicates that hepatitis B vaccine can cause chronic illness.

The disease process begins when a pathogen enters a person’s body.

Voluntary Good Samaritan acts that involve exposure to blood or other infectious materials are not covered by blood borne pathogens standard.

Antibiotics are effective medicines for treating viral infections.

HBV is the virus that causes AIDS.

Biohazard signs should be posted at entrances of work areas where potential pathogens may be present.

California Practice Act

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Which of the following are mandated reporters?

The Board may revoke a dental professional’s license if they are found to be abusing drugs or alcohol.

Which of the following is not a permissible function of an RDA?

An additional permit is required for an RDA to perform orthodontic functions.

Which of the following are unlicensed DA duties?

The Dental Board of California requires Dental Assistants to obtain a license prior to working in a dental office.

General supervision means that the dentist orders the auxiliary to perform certain functions that they are licensed to do. The dentist does not need to be physically present in the facility at the time of the function.

Direct supervision by the dentist means:

The registered dental hygienist in California can administer local anesthetic with permit.

If a license has been expired for more than 5 years it is automatically cancelled and cannot be renewed.

All licenses must be renewed every _______ year(s) or they will expire.

A dental material fact sheet must be provided to every new patient and to patients of record prior to the performance of restorative dental treatment.

The Dental Board has the authority to create new regulations relating to the practice of dentistry.

Which of the following is considered child abuse?

Special permits are required for the administration of general anesthesia or conscious sedation.

Coronal Polish

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Pressure helps control the rate of abrasion, firmer pressure results in:

As food is moved across the occlusal surfaces of the teeth:

Green stain is usually associated with:

This is the best method to use when holding a handpiece to accomplish this grasp

Coronal polishing is a task designated by the California Dental Practice Act to the:

Never use Iodine solution on a ________________ patient.

All new patients should fill out a health history:

Which types of polishing agent is used on a denture?

Tetracycline stain color may range from:

Plaque needs to be removed from the tooth surface every:

Polishing agents produce:

Orange line stain:

This stain cannot be removed by polishing:

This type of stain is associated primarily with plaque formation and poor oral hygiene.

Dilantin is a drug that may cause gingival hyperplasia (tissue overgrowth) and is associated with:

Which of the following is not an extrinsic stain?

Disclosing agents are generally made from the same dye used in food coloring:

It is best to establish a fulcrum:

Place the pad of the _________ finger on a stable tooth surface.

If a patient has HIV, Hepatitis, and/or Herpes:

Digital X-Ray

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The sensor sheaths are reusable.

When the green light on the interface is illuminated, it indicates:

Digital radiography is expected to eventually replace conventional film exposure.

Which dentist would use 3-D imaging?

Which of the following is considered extraoral film?

After using the sheath please:

The dentist is responsible for having dental assistants credentialed and trained to expose and process radiographs.

What is another type of indirect digital imaging?

The hand-held systems have a variety of settings:

What is the purpose of importing and exporting digital images?

Epinephrine

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When assisting a person to self-inject the medication during an anaphylactic reaction –

When interviewing the person, all the following are correct except for:

Which of the following is a signal of a mild reaction to a bit or sting?

Call 9-1-1 or the local emergency number if the person:

An antigen is a foreign substance that brings on an allergic reaction.

Some anaphylaxis kits also contain antihistamine in pill form.

An epinephrine auto-injector may be purchased over the counter and administered to any person showing signals of a severe allergic reaction.

After assisting with administration of the auto-injector:

In a life-threatening emergency, it is allowable to use another person’s prescription auto-injector

With an auto-injector, it is not necessary to fill the syringe with the medication.

First Aid

How should you care for someone with frostbitten fingers?

What signals should you look for to determine if a person is bleeding internally?

When caring for a person who is having a seizure, you should

The progression that heat-related emergencies can follow from early stage (least severe) to late stage (most severe) is:

A woman burned her hand in the lunchroom. You should

How should you care for a person with a possible head, neck or back injury?

This sudden illness results from too much or too little sugar in the person’s blood. What is it?

What is the first step in caring for a bleeding wound?

You suspect that someone is having a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting and is having trouble breathing. What should you do?

In general, a splint should be

Which type of injury involves an open wound where the bone has torn through the skin?

In stroke recognition, F.A.S.T. means:

What should you do if you suspect that a conscious person has been poisoned?

What should you do for a person with heat exhaustion?

What sudden illness is usually caused by a blockage of blood flow to the brain?

Pit & Fissure

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The primary purpose of dental sealants is:

The part of the portion of the crown that is visible in the mouth is:

Who can legally perform Pit and Fissure Sealants on patients?

It is important that sealant products are not stored:

What patient safety precautions should be considered when placing sealants?

Products are generally stored at:

Personal Protective Equipment consists of:

Once placed, sealants must be cured for a minimum of:

Etch each tooth for a minimum of:

Fulcrum helps to establish stability when supporting the:

After placement of sealants, it is important to:

If the tooth is properly etched, the enamel will appear:

Sealants are recommended for:

If saliva does come into contact with the tooth surface:

What is the primary reason for sealant failure?

The primary benefit of a filled sealant when compared to an unfiled is:

A dental sealant is only effective if:

The part of the tooth that is covered with enamel is:

The syringe tip and/or brush is gently moved to stir the sealant materialduring placement to:

Why are certain teeth more susceptible to caries formation?

Ultrasonic Scaling

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The ultrasonic scaling unit forces the breakdown of cement for removal by:

What characteristic of the ultrasonic scaling unit causes the cement to fracture and fall off?

The working tip of the ultrasonic unit should be kept in constant motion in order to avoid:

The ultrasonic scaler tip is placed at ____________ degree angle to the tooth surface.

An RDA who has successfully completed a Board Approved course in ultrasonic scaling may legally:

The ultrasonic scaler must never be used on a patient without consulting with the patient’s physician:

The best way to hold the handpiece when removing cement from the coronal surface of the tooth using an ultrasonic scaler is:

Why is it recommended that water be used with the ultrasonic unit when:

When using the ultrasonic unit to remove dental cement, what portion of the scaler tip is used?

The DPA designates the RDA in the use of an ultrasonic scaler unit to:

In what direction should the operator move the handpiece when removing cement?

When tuning the ultrasonic unit prior to beginning treatment, always:

Subgingival calculus or cement subgingival is removed by:

Improper use of the ultrasonic unit may result in:

What is the best place for a fulcrum when removing cement using the ultrasonic scaler?

Radiation Safety

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When exposing and processing radiographs, it is essential as with any dental treatment that infection control procedures are carefully followed.

X-ray and light are are forms of radiation that can be directed in a specific direction.

A Collimator contains a hole that limits the size of the primary beam to no more than_______ inches in diameter at the skin of the patient.

Avoid exposing pregnant women in their first trimester. Avoid retaking more than 3 radiographs on any patient when doing a full FMX.

A maxillary occlusal exposure is

The setting that regulates the quantity of x-ray produced during an exposure

When taking dental radiographs, the area with potential to cause most cross contamination is?

The ________ setting regulates the speed and penetrating power of the x-ray

___________ is an invisible high energy wave that can penetrate solid objects.

What is considered an extra-oral x-ray?

Processing utilizing an automatic film processing system is a faster more effective method of film processing?

Chemical that works on the crystal to produce the image on the film.

One of the signs of over exposure to radiation is

Rem determines the_______________

A child requires___________________ when taking x-rays?

The______________ is rectangular lead disk that is placed over the opening of the

Within the x-ray tube there are two electrodes, the positive electrode is the________

Which protects the surrounding tissue from unnecessary exposure by absorbing the x-ray?

The most sensitive cells to X-rays are those that are more specialized and reproduced more quickly are?

When an excessive vertical angle is used when taking x-rays the resulting image will be

This small film is worn whenever you are in the office and measures any radiation that you might receive as an operator or when performing other office tasks.

Which film is considered the best for caries detection by the dentist?

Scattered radiation can be controlled by?

The best film sizes to use on a child are

What is commonly used to assist in taking good dental x-rays?

During the processing technique, the chemical solutions convert the latent x-ray film image into a visible one.

This concept endorses the use of the lowest possible exposure to the patient and operator to x-ray exposure

PID stands for

The bitewings are usually taken as part of the FMX and is also used as a separate technique when an FMX is not indicated

Who is responsible for ordering radiographs?

AHA CPR

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Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 67-year-old man is found unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse. You and a second rescuer begin performing high-quality CPR. When should rescuers switch positions during CPR?

You notice the person giving chest compressions is not allowing for complete chest recoil. What is your next course of action?

"The team functions smoothly when all team members know their positions, functions, and tasks during a resuscitation attempt." Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

Early defibrillation is a link in the adult Chain of Survival. Why is this important to survival?

What special circumstance should a rescuer consider when using an AED?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 53-year-old woman collapses while gardening. She is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a pulse. A neighbor, who is an emergency medical technician, rushes to her with an AED. When the AED arrives, what is the first step for using it?

After the AED pads are attached to the person, the AED detects ventricular fibrillation. What is the next step when using an AED?

What should you do if you need to use an AED on someone who has been submerged in water?

Why is defibrillation important?

Which adult victim requires high-quality CPR?

Why is allowing complete chest recoil important when performing high-quality CPR?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A middle-aged man collapses. You and a second rescuer go to the victim and find that he is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a pulse. Which action is most likely to positively impact his survival?

You and another rescuer begin CPR. After a few cycles, you notice the chest compression rate is slowing. What should you say to offer constructive feedback?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: An 8-month-old infant is eating and suddenly begins to cough. The infant is unable to make any noise shortly after. You pick up the infant and shout for help. You have determined that the infant is responsive and choking with a severe airway obstruction. How do you relieve the airway obstruction?

The infant becomes unresponsive. Which action do you perform to relieve choking in an unresponsive infant?

What ratio for compressions to breaths should be used for 1-rescuer infant CPR?

When you are performing CPR on an unresponsive person whom you know is choking, what modification should you incorporate?

How can rescuers ensure that they are providing effective breaths when using a bag-mask device?

Which characteristics of chest compressions in high-quality CPR are given to a child?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 9-year-old child has suddenly collapsed. After confirming that the scene is safe, a single rescuer determines that the child is in cardiac arrest, shouts for nearby help, and activates the emergency response system by using his mobile device. He immediately begins performing high-quality CPR. Two additional rescuers immediately arrive to assist in the resuscitation attempt. What actions should occur next to support a team-based resuscitation attempt?

Two rescuers begin high-quality CPR while the third rescuer leaves to get the AED. What action supports 2-rescuer CPR?

While performing high-quality CPR on an adult, what action should you ensure is being accomplished?

A victim with a foreign-body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive. What is your first course of action?

"Members of the team know their boundaries and ask for help before the resuscitation attempt worsens." Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

You witness someone suddenly collapse. The person is unresponsive, you hear gasping sounds, and there is no pulse. You phone the local emergency response number. What should you do next?

Reminder
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