CDC Course Homework

Below is the list of reading material and test for your course. Click the name of your course to begin your reading and exam. Upon completion and passing exam, your printed certificate will be emailed directly to CDC. You will not need to print the certificate.

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2 Hour Infection Control

Bacterial spores are harder to kill than fungus.

It is illegal to refuse treatment to an HIV infected patient.

DUWL (Dental Unit Water Lines) should be flushed:

High level disinfectants kill micro-organisms, except spores with prolonged contact may kill endospores.

Which of the following cause damage to latex gloves?

PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) consists of:

As a patient, you should always ask about the dental office sterilization protocol and examine the room for cleanliness.

Heat sterilizers should be spore tested:

When placing a used needle in a sharps container you should:

If you need to retrieve an item in a drawer during a procedure and your gloves are contaminated, you should:

The definition of “disinfection” in this course is:

A disinfectant should be:

Alginate impressions do not need to be sterilized because they need to be poured up right away due to possible shrinkage and the store will not carry any bacteria.

Hepatitis has 5 main categories, which of the following apply?

When taking x-rays, the collimator is never in contact with the patients mouth so there is no need to cover or disinfect it after each patient.

8 Hour Infection Control

When should face masks be changed?

Gloves must be worn when there is the potential for contacting:

What is the most important means of preventing disease transmission?

Dental personnel are potentially exposed to:

Dental unit waterlines will be flushed for how long between patients?

The greatest risk of infection from a needle stick is from:

Semi-critical instruments:

All patients must be treated equally regardless of physical condition. A patient with a communicable disease is treated with more caution.

The letters CDC stand for:

The guidelines for infection control standard are set by:

When using universal precautions, _____________ infection control procedures are used for all patients.

Face shields may be worn:

Disinfecting agents for environmental surfaces should:

Steam sterilization under pressure can be achieved with:

The average risk of HIV infection after a needle stick exposure to HIV-infected blood is:

Handwashing is not necessary when taking intra-oral dental radiographs because gloves are always worn.

Counter tops and unit surfaces should be cleaned using 2×2 or 4×4 soaked in disinfectant and decontaminant cleaner, wipe all counter tops using “spray, wipe, spray technique” , never allow the gauze to go back over a previously cleared area.

Clean and disinfect all dental impressions immediately after removal from the patient’s mouth.

Instruments should be packaged before sterilization to:

Universal precautions are strategies used to _____________ the risk of transmission of pathogens in the health-care setting.

Handwashing technique includes the use of:

What must be right after exposure?

Which of the following statements is true?

Proper spore testing verification can be accomplished by:

Which of the following is not considered personal protective equipment? Thoroughly reviewed throughout pages

What is the water temperature that should be used when washing hands?

When recapping an anesthetic needle, it is BEST to:

Asthma

The medication may be repeated once after _____ minute(s).

Which of the following are signals of an asthma attack?

Which of the following are triggers of an asthma attack?

An asthma attack may make which difficult?

To care for a person having an asthma attack you should:

Do not give medication if:

Have the person rinse out his or her mouth with:

The medications may be repeated every _____ to _____ minutes thereafter.

The person suffering from an asthma attack should try to hold his/her breath and count to:

To care for shock:

Bloodborne Pathogens

Biohazard signs should be posted at entrances of work areas where potential pathogens may be present.

HBV is the virus that causes AIDS.

The disease process begins when a pathogen enters a person’s body.

Voluntary Good Samaritan acts that involve exposure to blood or other infectious materials are not covered by blood borne pathogens standard.

There is no confirmed evidence that indicates that hepatitis B vaccine can cause chronic illness.

Exposure determination is based on the availability or use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

All emergency care workers who, as part of their job duties, give assistance in any incident involving blood or other potentially infectious materials, regardless of whether a specific exposure incident occurs, must be offered the full Hepatitis B vaccination series.

Antibodies are usually effective at fighting disease.

Personal protective equipment (PPE) includes disposable gloves, gowns, masks, and shields, protective eyewear and breathing barriers.

Antibiotics are effective medicines for treating viral infections.

California Practice Act

A dental material fact sheet must be provided to every new patient and to patients of record prior to the performance of restorative dental treatment.

The Dental Board has the authority to create new regulations relating to the practice of dentistry.

Which of the following is not a permissible function of an RDA?

All licenses must be renewed every _______ year(s) or they will expire.

Direct supervision by the dentist means:

The Dental Board of California requires Dental Assistants to obtain a license prior to working in a dental office.

The registered dental hygienist in California can administer local anesthetic with permit.

General supervision means that the dentist orders the auxiliary to perform certain functions that they are licensed to do. The dentist does not need to be physically present in the facility at the time of the function.

The Board may revoke a dental professional’s license if they are found to be abusing drugs or alcohol.

Special permits are required for the administration of general anesthesia or conscious sedation.

An additional permit is required for an RDA to perform orthodontic functions.

Which of the following are mandated reporters?

If a license has been expired for more than 5 years it is automatically cancelled and cannot be renewed.

Which of the following are unlicensed DA duties?

Which of the following is considered child abuse?

Coronal Polish

Which types of polishing agent is used on a denture?

Pressure helps control the rate of abrasion, firmer pressure results in:

Plaque needs to be removed from the tooth surface every:

It is best to establish a fulcrum:

This type of stain is associated primarily with plaque formation and poor oral hygiene.

If a patient has HIV, Hepatitis, and/or Herpes:

Orange line stain:

As food is moved across the occlusal surfaces of the teeth:

Dilantin is a drug that may cause gingival hyperplasia (tissue overgrowth) and is associated with:

This stain cannot be removed by polishing:

Disclosing agents are generally made from the same dye used in food coloring:

Coronal polishing is a task designated by the California Dental Practice Act to the:

Which of the following is not an extrinsic stain?

All new patients should fill out a health history:

Polishing agents produce:

Place the pad of the _________ finger on a stable tooth surface.

This is the best method to use when holding a handpiece to accomplish this grasp

Never use Iodine solution on a ________________ patient.

Green stain is usually associated with:

Tetracycline stain color may range from:

Digital X-Ray

What is another type of indirect digital imaging?

The dentist is responsible for having dental assistants credentialed and trained to expose and process radiographs.

When the green light on the interface is illuminated, it indicates:

After using the sheath please:

Which dentist would use 3-D imaging?

Digital radiography is expected to eventually replace conventional film exposure.

Which of the following is considered extraoral film?

The sensor sheaths are reusable.

What is the purpose of importing and exporting digital images?

The hand-held systems have a variety of settings:

Epinephrine

When assisting a person to self-inject the medication during an anaphylactic reaction –

Call 9-1-1 or the local emergency number if the person:

With an auto-injector, it is not necessary to fill the syringe with the medication.

An antigen is a foreign substance that brings on an allergic reaction.

Some anaphylaxis kits also contain antihistamine in pill form.

In a life-threatening emergency, it is allowable to use another person’s prescription auto-injector

After assisting with administration of the auto-injector:

Which of the following is a signal of a mild reaction to a bit or sting?

When interviewing the person, all the following are correct except for:

An epinephrine auto-injector may be purchased over the counter and administered to any person showing signals of a severe allergic reaction.

First Aid

What should you do for a person with heat exhaustion?

In general, a splint should be

When caring for a person who is having a seizure, you should

What sudden illness is usually caused by a blockage of blood flow to the brain?

What should you do if you suspect that a conscious person has been poisoned?

You suspect that someone is having a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting and is having trouble breathing. What should you do?

What is the first step in caring for a bleeding wound?

What signals should you look for to determine if a person is bleeding internally?

How should you care for someone with frostbitten fingers?

A woman burned her hand in the lunchroom. You should

This sudden illness results from too much or too little sugar in the person’s blood. What is it?

The progression that heat-related emergencies can follow from early stage (least severe) to late stage (most severe) is:

How should you care for a person with a possible head, neck or back injury?

Which type of injury involves an open wound where the bone has torn through the skin?

In stroke recognition, F.A.S.T. means:

Pit & Fissure

Personal Protective Equipment consists of:

Products are generally stored at:

After placement of sealants, it is important to:

Fulcrum helps to establish stability when supporting the:

A dental sealant is only effective if:

The syringe tip and/or brush is gently moved to stir the sealant materialduring placement to:

Once placed, sealants must be cured for a minimum of:

Sealants are recommended for:

If the tooth is properly etched, the enamel will appear:

Etch each tooth for a minimum of:

What is the primary reason for sealant failure?

Why are certain teeth more susceptible to caries formation?

If saliva does come into contact with the tooth surface:

The part of the portion of the crown that is visible in the mouth is:

The primary benefit of a filled sealant when compared to an unfiled is:

The part of the tooth that is covered with enamel is:

It is important that sealant products are not stored:

What patient safety precautions should be considered when placing sealants?

Who can legally perform Pit and Fissure Sealants on patients?

The primary purpose of dental sealants is:

Ultrasonic Scaling

Improper use of the ultrasonic unit may result in:

The ultrasonic scaler must never be used on a patient without consulting with the patient’s physician:

What is the best place for a fulcrum when removing cement using the ultrasonic scaler?

Subgingival calculus or cement subgingival is removed by:

What characteristic of the ultrasonic scaling unit causes the cement to fracture and fall off?

The ultrasonic scaling unit forces the breakdown of cement for removal by:

In what direction should the operator move the handpiece when removing cement?

The DPA designates the RDA in the use of an ultrasonic scaler unit to:

The best way to hold the handpiece when removing cement from the coronal surface of the tooth using an ultrasonic scaler is:

When tuning the ultrasonic unit prior to beginning treatment, always:

The ultrasonic scaler tip is placed at ____________ degree angle to the tooth surface.

The working tip of the ultrasonic unit should be kept in constant motion in order to avoid:

When using the ultrasonic unit to remove dental cement, what portion of the scaler tip is used?

Why is it recommended that water be used with the ultrasonic unit when:

An RDA who has successfully completed a Board Approved course in ultrasonic scaling may legally:

Radiation Safety

The best film sizes to use on a child are

When taking dental radiographs, the area with potential to cause most cross contamination is?

The ________ setting regulates the speed and penetrating power of the x-ray

Which film is considered the best for caries detection by the dentist?

During the processing technique, the chemical solutions convert the latent x-ray film image into a visible one.

What is commonly used to assist in taking good dental x-rays?

X-ray and light are are forms of radiation that can be directed in a specific direction.

This concept endorses the use of the lowest possible exposure to the patient and operator to x-ray exposure

___________ is an invisible high energy wave that can penetrate solid objects.

The most sensitive cells to X-rays are those that are more specialized and reproduced more quickly are?

A Collimator contains a hole that limits the size of the primary beam to no more than_______ inches in diameter at the skin of the patient.

Within the x-ray tube there are two electrodes, the positive electrode is the________

The______________ is rectangular lead disk that is placed over the opening of the

What is considered an extra-oral x-ray?

A maxillary occlusal exposure is

The bitewings are usually taken as part of the FMX and is also used as a separate technique when an FMX is not indicated

The setting that regulates the quantity of x-ray produced during an exposure

Chemical that works on the crystal to produce the image on the film.

When an excessive vertical angle is used when taking x-rays the resulting image will be

Processing utilizing an automatic film processing system is a faster more effective method of film processing?

Scattered radiation can be controlled by?

Avoid exposing pregnant women in their first trimester. Avoid retaking more than 3 radiographs on any patient when doing a full FMX.

A child requires___________________ when taking x-rays?

Rem determines the_______________

Which protects the surrounding tissue from unnecessary exposure by absorbing the x-ray?

Who is responsible for ordering radiographs?

When exposing and processing radiographs, it is essential as with any dental treatment that infection control procedures are carefully followed.

PID stands for

One of the signs of over exposure to radiation is

This small film is worn whenever you are in the office and measures any radiation that you might receive as an operator or when performing other office tasks.

AHA CPR

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 67-year-old man is found unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse. You and a second rescuer begin performing high-quality CPR. When should rescuers switch positions during CPR?

You notice the person giving chest compressions is not allowing for complete chest recoil. What is your next course of action?

"The team functions smoothly when all team members know their positions, functions, and tasks during a resuscitation attempt." Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

Early defibrillation is a link in the adult Chain of Survival. Why is this important to survival?

What special circumstance should a rescuer consider when using an AED?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 53-year-old woman collapses while gardening. She is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a pulse. A neighbor, who is an emergency medical technician, rushes to her with an AED. When the AED arrives, what is the first step for using it?

After the AED pads are attached to the person, the AED detects ventricular fibrillation. What is the next step when using an AED?

What should you do if you need to use an AED on someone who has been submerged in water?

Why is defibrillation important?

Which adult victim requires high-quality CPR?

Why is allowing complete chest recoil important when performing high-quality CPR?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A middle-aged man collapses. You and a second rescuer go to the victim and find that he is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a pulse. Which action is most likely to positively impact his survival?

You and another rescuer begin CPR. After a few cycles, you notice the chest compression rate is slowing. What should you say to offer constructive feedback?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: An 8-month-old infant is eating and suddenly begins to cough. The infant is unable to make any noise shortly after. You pick up the infant and shout for help. You have determined that the infant is responsive and choking with a severe airway obstruction. How do you relieve the airway obstruction?

The infant becomes unresponsive. Which action do you perform to relieve choking in an unresponsive infant?

What ratio for compressions to breaths should be used for 1-rescuer infant CPR?

When you are performing CPR on an unresponsive person whom you know is choking, what modification should you incorporate?

How can rescuers ensure that they are providing effective breaths when using a bag-mask device?

Which characteristics of chest compressions in high-quality CPR are given to a child?

Use this scenario to answer the next 2 questions: A 9-year-old child has suddenly collapsed. After confirming that the scene is safe, a single rescuer determines that the child is in cardiac arrest, shouts for nearby help, and activates the emergency response system by using his mobile device. He immediately begins performing high-quality CPR. Two additional rescuers immediately arrive to assist in the resuscitation attempt. What actions should occur next to support a team-based resuscitation attempt?

Two rescuers begin high-quality CPR while the third rescuer leaves to get the AED. What action supports 2-rescuer CPR?

While performing high-quality CPR on an adult, what action should you ensure is being accomplished?

A victim with a foreign-body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive. What is your first course of action?

"Members of the team know their boundaries and ask for help before the resuscitation attempt worsens." Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.

You witness someone suddenly collapse. The person is unresponsive, you hear gasping sounds, and there is no pulse. You phone the local emergency response number. What should you do next?

Reminder
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